HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam Capstone
1. The healthcare provider prescribes an IV infusion of isoproterenol in D5W at 300 mcg/hour. How many ml/hour should the nurse set the pump to?
- A. 100 ml/hour
- B. 75 ml/hour
- C. 60 ml/hour
- D. 125 ml/hour
Correct answer: B
Rationale: To calculate the correct infusion rate, convert 300 mcg/hour to mg/hour (300 mcg = 0.3 mg). Since the IV solution is 1 mg in 250 ml, the rate is calculated as 0.3 mg/hour = 75 ml/hour. Therefore, the nurse should set the pump to 75 ml/hour. Choice A (100 ml/hour) is incorrect as it does not reflect the accurate calculation. Choice C (60 ml/hour) is incorrect as it is lower than the correct rate. Choice D (125 ml/hour) is incorrect as it is higher than the correct rate.
2. A client with cirrhosis is admitted with jaundice, fatigue, and a distended abdomen. Which laboratory result is most important for the nurse to monitor?
- A. Ammonia level
- B. White blood cell count
- C. Albumin level
- D. Hemoglobin level
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: In clients with cirrhosis, elevated ammonia levels can lead to hepatic encephalopathy, which is a serious complication. Monitoring ammonia levels is crucial to assess for changes in mental status and initiate treatment if needed. White blood cell count (choice B) is not the most important parameter to monitor in this scenario as it does not directly relate to the complications of cirrhosis. Albumin level (choice C) and hemoglobin level (choice D) are also important in cirrhosis, but in this case, monitoring ammonia level takes precedence due to its direct association with hepatic encephalopathy.
3. The nurse is providing care for a client with suspected deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in the left leg. Which action should the nurse take first?
- A. Encourage the client to ambulate
- B. Apply a warm compress to the left leg
- C. Elevate the client's left leg
- D. Administer a prescribed anticoagulant
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Elevating the affected leg promotes venous return and reduces swelling, which is a priority intervention for a client with suspected DVT. This action helps prevent the thrombus from dislodging and causing further complications. Encouraging ambulation may dislodge the clot, leading to a pulmonary embolism. Applying a warm compress can increase blood flow to the area, potentially dislodging the clot. Administering anticoagulants is essential but should not be the first action as elevation helps to reduce the risk of complications associated with DVT.
4. After a lumbar puncture, a client reports a severe headache. What is the nurse's priority intervention?
- A. Administer a dose of acetaminophen.
- B. Elevate the head of the bed.
- C. Encourage the client to rest in a dark room.
- D. Administer caffeine to relieve the headache.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: After a lumbar puncture, a severe headache is often caused by cerebrospinal fluid leakage. Elevating the head of the bed or having the client lie flat can reduce cerebrospinal fluid pressure and alleviate the headache. These positions help prevent further fluid loss and relieve discomfort. While acetaminophen or caffeine may help in relieving the headache, changing the client's position is the priority to address the underlying cause. Resting in a dark room may be beneficial for headache relief but is not the priority intervention compared to adjusting the position to manage cerebrospinal fluid pressure.
5. A 5-week-old infant with hypertrophic pyloric stenosis has developed projectile vomiting over the last two weeks. Which intervention should the nurse plan to implement?
- A. Instruct the mother to give sugar water only.
- B. Offer the infant oral rehydration every 2 hours.
- C. Provide Pedialyte feedings via nasogastric tube.
- D. Maintain intravenous fluid therapy.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct intervention for a 5-week-old infant with hypertrophic pyloric stenosis presenting with projectile vomiting is to maintain intravenous fluid therapy. This is essential to maintain hydration before surgery. Instructing the mother to give sugar water only (Choice A) is inadequate and does not address the need for proper hydration. Offering oral rehydration every 2 hours (Choice B) may not be effective in cases of severe vomiting and could lead to further fluid loss. Providing Pedialyte feedings via nasogastric tube (Choice C) is an option, but in severe cases, intravenous fluid therapy is more effective in ensuring hydration and electrolyte balance.
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