Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following lipid abnormalities is a risk factor for the development of atherosclerosis and peripheral vascular disease?

• A. Low concentration of triglycerides.
• B. High levels of high-density lipoprotein (HDL) cholesterol.
• C. High levels of low-density lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol.
• D. Low levels of LDL cholesterol.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: High levels of low-density lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol. High levels of LDL cholesterol contribute to the development of atherosclerosis and peripheral vascular disease by being deposited in the blood vessel walls, leading to the formation of plaques that can obstruct blood flow. Choice A is incorrect as a low concentration of triglycerides is not typically associated with an increased risk of atherosclerosis or PVD. Choice B is incorrect as high levels of high-density lipoprotein (HDL) cholesterol are actually considered protective against atherosclerosis as it helps remove cholesterol from arteries. Choice D is incorrect as low levels of LDL cholesterol are not typically considered a risk factor for atherosclerosis or PVD.

2. Which electrolyte imbalance is most likely to be seen in a patient with chronic kidney disease?

• A. Hypernatremia.
• B. Hyperkalemia.
• C. Hypocalcemia.
• D. Hypokalemia.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In chronic kidney disease, hyperkalemia is the most common electrolyte imbalance due to the kidneys' reduced ability to excrete potassium. This impaired kidney function leads to potassium retention in the body, resulting in elevated serum potassium levels. Hypernatremia (increased sodium levels) is less likely in chronic kidney disease as the kidneys typically still function to regulate sodium levels. Hypocalcemia (low calcium levels) is not a prominent electrolyte imbalance in chronic kidney disease unless there are additional factors involved. Hypokalemia (low potassium levels) is less common in chronic kidney disease, as the primary issue is usually potassium retention rather than deficiency.

3. A client with bladder cancer who underwent a complete cystectomy with ileal conduit is being assessed by a nurse. Which assessment finding should prompt the nurse to urgently contact the healthcare provider?

• A. The ileostomy is draining blood-tinged urine.
• B. There is serous sanguineous drainage on the surgical dressing.
• C. The ileostomy stoma appears pale and cyanotic.
• D. Oxygen saturations are 92% on room air.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A pale or cyanotic appearance of the ileostomy stoma indicates compromised circulation, which can lead to necrosis if not promptly addressed. On the other hand, blood-tinged urine and serous sanguineous drainage are common following a complete cystectomy with ileal conduit. These findings do not typically indicate an urgent issue. An oxygen saturation of 92% on room air is slightly below the normal range but does not warrant urgent healthcare provider contact unless accompanied by significant respiratory distress or other concerning symptoms.

4. A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus who jogs daily is being taught by a nurse about the preferred sites for insulin absorption. What is the most appropriate site for this client?

• A. Arms
• B. Legs
• C. Abdomen
• D. Iliac crest

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The abdomen is the most appropriate site for insulin absorption in a client who jogs. When a client is involved in physical activity like jogging, the abdomen is preferred as it provides more consistent absorption compared to the arms or legs, which can have altered absorption rates due to increased blood flow during exercise. The iliac crest is not a common site for insulin injections and may not provide optimal absorption rates compared to the abdomen.

5. The client has had a femoral-popliteal bypass surgery 6 hours ago. Which assessment provides the most accurate information about the client's postoperative status?

• A. Radial pulse.
• B. Femoral pulse.
• C. Apical pulse.
• D. Dorsalis pedis pulse.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Assessing the dorsalis pedis pulse is crucial after a femoral-popliteal bypass surgery to determine adequate circulation distal to the surgical site. A strong dorsalis pedis pulse indicates sufficient blood flow to the foot, which is essential for monitoring postoperative status. The radial pulse (A) is not the most relevant assessment as it does not provide direct information on circulation in the lower extremities. The femoral pulse (B) may not accurately reflect circulation distal to the surgical site. The apical pulse (C) is used primarily to assess the heartbeat and cardiac function, not circulation in the lower extremities.

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