which of the following lipid abnormalities is a risk factor for the development of atherosclerosis and peripheral vascular disease
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Evolve HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam Quizlet

1. Which of the following lipid abnormalities is a risk factor for the development of atherosclerosis and peripheral vascular disease?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: High levels of low-density lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol. High levels of LDL cholesterol contribute to the development of atherosclerosis and peripheral vascular disease by being deposited in the blood vessel walls, leading to the formation of plaques that can obstruct blood flow. Choice A is incorrect as a low concentration of triglycerides is not typically associated with an increased risk of atherosclerosis or PVD. Choice B is incorrect as high levels of high-density lipoprotein (HDL) cholesterol are actually considered protective against atherosclerosis as it helps remove cholesterol from arteries. Choice D is incorrect as low levels of LDL cholesterol are not typically considered a risk factor for atherosclerosis or PVD.

2. After pericardiocentesis for cardiac tamponade, for which signs should the nurse assess the client to determine if tamponade is recurring?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: After pericardiocentesis for cardiac tamponade, the nurse should assess for distant muffled heart sounds that were noted before the procedure. If these sounds return, it could indicate recurring pericardial effusion and potential tamponade. Therefore, the correct answer is the return of distant muffled heart sounds (Option C). Decreasing pulse (Option A) and falling central venous pressure (Option D) are not specific signs of recurring tamponade. Rising blood pressure (Option B) is also not a typical sign of tamponade recurrence; in fact, hypotension is more commonly associated with tamponade.

3. The client who has a history of Parkinson's disease for the past 5 years is being assessed by the nurse. What symptoms would this client most likely exhibit?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Parkinson's Disease, a common neurologic progressive disorder in older clients, is characterized by symptoms such as shuffling gait, masklike facial expression, and tremors of the head and hands. Choice A is incorrect as symptoms like loss of short-term memory, facial tics, and constant writhing movements are not typically associated with Parkinson's disease. Choice C is incorrect as extreme muscular weakness, easy fatigability, and ptosis are more indicative of other conditions like myasthenia gravis. Choice D is incorrect as numbness of the extremities, loss of balance, and visual disturbances are not classic symptoms of Parkinson's disease.

4. A client is starting urinary bladder training. Which statement should the nurse include in this client’s teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In urinary bladder training, the client should be taught to try to consciously hold their urine until the scheduled toileting time. This helps in training the bladder to hold urine for longer periods. Option A is incorrect because the goal is to consciously hold urine, not void immediately. Option C is incorrect as toileting at least every half hour may not promote bladder training. Option D is incorrect as increasing the toileting interval should be based on the client's comfort and progress, not just after being continent for a week.

5. Which of the following lab results is most indicative of dehydration?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Elevated creatinine levels are indicative of dehydration because when the body is dehydrated, the kidneys concentrate urine to preserve fluid, leading to higher levels of creatinine. Low sodium levels (Choice A) can be seen in conditions like hyponatremia but are not specific to dehydration. Low potassium levels (Choice C) are more commonly associated with conditions like hypokalemia. High blood glucose levels (Choice D) are typically seen in diabetes and are not specific indicators of dehydration.

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