a client has made an appointment to for her annual papanicolaou test aka pap smear the nurse who schedules the appointment should tell the client that a client has made an appointment to for her annual papanicolaou test aka pap smear the nurse who schedules the appointment should tell the client that
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Medical Surgical Practice Quiz

1. A client has made an appointment for her annual Papanicolaou test (a.k.a. Pap smear). The nurse who schedules the appointment should tell the client that:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. A Pap smear cannot be performed with accurate results during menstruation. Menstrual blood may interfere with the test results. Choice B is incorrect as vaginal douching should be avoided for at least 24 hours before the test to prevent altering the cervical cells. Choice C is incorrect as there is no restriction on spicy foods before a Pap smear. Choice D is incorrect as some women may experience mild discomfort during the test, although it is generally well-tolerated.

2. A client who is taking clonidine (Catapres, Duraclon) reports drowsiness. Which additional assessment should the nurse make?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. When a client reports drowsiness while taking clonidine, the nurse should assess how long the client has been taking the medication. Drowsiness is a common side effect that can occur in the early weeks of treatment with clonidine. By understanding the duration of medication use, the nurse can determine if the drowsiness is a temporary effect that may decrease over time. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because assessing the client's dietary habits, checking for signs of infection, or evaluating the client's sleep pattern would not directly address the drowsiness associated with clonidine use.

3. The healthcare worker is wearing PPE while caring for a client. When exiting the room, which PPE should be removed first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Gloves should be removed first as they are most likely to be contaminated. This is followed by the gown, then face shield, and mask. Correct removal sequence helps prevent contamination. Removing gloves first reduces the risk of transferring pathogens from the gloves to other PPE or surfaces. Face shield and mask should be removed last as they protect mucous membranes from exposure to contaminants. Removing PPE in the correct sequence is crucial in preventing the spread of infections.

4. The healthcare professional counts an adult's apical heartbeat at 110 beats per minute. The healthcare professional describes this as:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Tachycardia is a heart rate greater than 100 beats per minute. In this case, an adult's heart rate of 110 beats per minute falls within the range of tachycardia. Tachycardia can be a common physiological response to various stresses on the body, leading to an increased heart rate. Asystole refers to the absence of cardiac activity, bigeminy is a specific heart rhythm pattern, and bradycardia is a heart rate below 60 beats per minute in adults.

5. A client with a ruptured spleen underwent an emergency splenectomy. Twelve hours later, the client’s urine output is 25 ml/hour. What is the most likely cause?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Oliguria, or decreased urine output, after surgery can indicate tubular necrosis due to hypoperfusion, which may require intervention to restore renal function. Choice A is incorrect as oliguria is not a normal finding after surgery. Choice C is incorrect because dehydration is less likely in this context compared to tubular necrosis. Choice D is incorrect as a urine output of 25 ml/hour is not expected after splenectomy and should raise concern for renal impairment.

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