HESI RN
HESI Medical Surgical Test Bank
1. An adult client who received partial thickness burns on 40% of the body in a house fire is admitted to the inpatient burn unit. Which fluid should the nurse prepare to administer during the client's burn recovery?
- A. 5% dextrose in water
- B. 5% dextrose in 0.25 normal saline
- C. Total parenteral nutrition
- D. Lactated Ringer's
Correct answer: D
Rationale: During the burn recovery phase, the nurse should prepare to administer Lactated Ringer's solution. Lactated Ringer's is the preferred fluid choice for burn patients as it helps replace lost fluids and electrolytes, maintain perfusion, and support organ function. Option A, 5% dextrose in water, is not the appropriate choice for fluid resuscitation in burn patients. Option B, 5% dextrose in 0.25 normal saline, does not provide the necessary electrolytes needed for burn recovery. Option C, Total parenteral nutrition, may be considered later in the treatment but is not the initial fluid of choice for burn recovery.
2. The nurse is teaching a nursing student about the minimal effective concentration (MEC) of antibiotics. Which statement by the nursing student indicates understanding of this concept?
- A. A serum drug level greater than the MEC ensures that the drug is bacteriostatic.
- B. A serum drug level greater than the MEC broadens the spectrum of the drug.
- C. A serum drug level greater than the MEC helps eradicate bacterial infections.
- D. A serum drug level greater than the MEC increases the therapeutic index.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The MEC is the minimum amount of drug needed to halt the growth of a microorganism. A level greater than the MEC helps eradicate infections. Drugs at or above the MEC are usually bactericidal, not bacteriostatic. Therefore, choice A is incorrect. Broadening the spectrum of a drug refers to its range of activity against different microorganisms, which is not directly related to MEC. Thus, choice B is incorrect. Increasing the therapeutic index involves maximizing the effectiveness of a drug while minimizing its toxicity, which is not specifically related to MEC. Therefore, choice D is also incorrect.
3. In a patient with asthma, which of the following is the most important indicator of respiratory function?
- A. Oxygen saturation.
- B. Respiratory rate.
- C. Arterial blood gases.
- D. Peak expiratory flow rate.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The peak expiratory flow rate is the most important indicator of respiratory function in asthma because it measures how quickly air can be exhaled, reflecting the severity of airflow limitation. Oxygen saturation (Choice A) is important in assessing oxygenation, but it does not directly reflect respiratory function. Respiratory rate (Choice B) can provide information on breathing patterns but does not quantify airflow limitation. Arterial blood gases (Choice C) give information about gas exchange but are not as specific for assessing asthma control and severity as peak expiratory flow rate.
4. After an endotracheal tube is placed in a client who experienced sudden onset of respiratory distress, what should the nurse do?
- A. Secure the tube in place with tape
- B. Order a chest x-ray for the client
- C. Document the depth of tube insertion
- D. Auscultate both lungs for breath sounds
Correct answer: D
Rationale: After endotracheal tube insertion, the nurse should auscultate both lungs for the presence of breath sounds. This step helps confirm proper tube placement and adequate ventilation. Auscultation of breath sounds is crucial to ensure that the tube is correctly positioned in the trachea and not in the esophagus. While securing the tube with tape is important, it is not the immediate priority after insertion. Ordering a chest x-ray may be necessary but is not the first action to take immediately post-intubation. Documenting the depth of tube insertion is important but ensuring proper ventilation through auscultation takes precedence.
5. A patient is taking a thiazide diuretic and reports anorexia and fatigue. The nurse suspects which electrolyte imbalance in this patient?
- A. Hypercalcemia
- B. Hypocalcemia
- C. Hyperkalemia
- D. Hypokalemia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hypokalemia. Thiazide diuretics lead to potassium loss, potentially causing hypokalemia. Anorexia and fatigue are common manifestations of hypokalemia. Hypercalcemia (choice A) and hypocalcemia (choice B) are not directly associated with thiazide diuretics. Hyperkalemia (choice C) is less likely than hypokalemia to be caused by thiazide diuretics.
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