Nursing Elites

1. An adult client who received partial thickness burns on 40% of the body in a house fire is admitted to the inpatient burn unit. Which fluid should the nurse prepare to administer during the client's burn recovery?

• A. 5% dextrose in water
• B. 5% dextrose in 0.25 normal saline
• C. Total parenteral nutrition
• D. Lactated Ringer's

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During the burn recovery phase, the nurse should prepare to administer Lactated Ringer's solution. Lactated Ringer's is the preferred fluid choice for burn patients as it helps replace lost fluids and electrolytes, maintain perfusion, and support organ function. Option A, 5% dextrose in water, is not the appropriate choice for fluid resuscitation in burn patients. Option B, 5% dextrose in 0.25 normal saline, does not provide the necessary electrolytes needed for burn recovery. Option C, Total parenteral nutrition, may be considered later in the treatment but is not the initial fluid of choice for burn recovery.

2. After educating a client with stress incontinence, the nurse assesses the client’s understanding. Which statement made by the client indicates a need for additional teaching?

• A. I will limit my total intake of fluids.
• B. I must avoid drinking alcoholic beverages.
• C. I must avoid drinking caffeinated beverages.
• D. I shall try to lose about 10% of my body weight.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Limiting fluids can worsen stress incontinence by concentrating urine and irritating tissues, leading to increased incontinence. Adequate hydration is important to maintain bladder health and function. Choices B and C are correct as avoiding alcoholic and caffeinated beverages can help reduce bladder irritation. Choice D is also correct as losing about 10% of body weight can help reduce intra-abdominal pressure, which is beneficial in managing stress incontinence.

3. The nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving oral potassium chloride supplements. The nurse notes that the patient has a heart rate of 120 beats per minute and has had a urine output of 200 mL in the past 12 hours. The patient reports abdominal cramping. Which action will the nurse take?

• A. Contact the provider to request an order for serum electrolytes.
• B. Encourage the patient to consume less fluids.
• C. Report symptoms of hyperkalemia to the provider.
• D. Request an order to increase the patient’s potassium dose.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Oliguria, tachycardia, and abdominal cramping are signs of hyperkalemia, so the nurse should request an order for serum electrolytes to assess the patient's potassium levels. Encouraging the patient to consume less fluids would not address the underlying issue of potential hyperkalemia. Reporting symptoms of hyperkalemia to the provider is not as proactive as directly requesting serum electrolytes. Increasing the patient's potassium dose would worsen hyperkalemia, which is already suspected based on the symptoms presented.

4. The client with chronic renal failure is being educated about the importance of a low-sodium diet. Which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I can eat canned vegetables as long as I rinse them first.
• B. I can use table salt sparingly.
• C. I can eat frozen dinners if they are labeled low-sodium.
• D. I can eat whatever I want as long as I avoid salty foods.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Clients with chronic renal failure need to strictly limit their sodium intake. Advising the client to use table salt sparingly is incorrect as they should avoid table salt altogether to adhere to a low-sodium diet. Choice A is correct as rinsing canned vegetables can help reduce their sodium content. Choice C is correct as consuming frozen dinners labeled low-sodium can be a suitable option. Choice D is incorrect as it implies that avoiding only salty foods is sufficient, when in fact, overall sodium intake needs to be monitored closely.

5. A client is receiving a continuous IV infusion of heparin for the treatment of deep vein thrombosis. The client’s activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) level is 80 seconds. The client’s baseline before the initiation of therapy was 30 seconds. Which action does the nurse anticipate is needed?

• A. Shutting off the heparin infusion
• B. Increasing the rate of the heparin infusion
• C. Decreasing the rate of the heparin infusion
• D. Leaving the rate of the heparin infusion as is

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse needs to decrease the rate of the heparin infusion. The therapeutic dose of heparin for the treatment of deep vein thrombosis is designed to keep the aPTT between 1.5 and 2.5 times normal. With the client's aPTT level elevated to 80 seconds from a baseline of 30 seconds, it indicates that the current rate of heparin infusion is too high. Lowering the rate of infusion is necessary to bring the aPTT within the desired therapeutic range. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because shutting off the infusion, increasing the rate, or leaving it as is would not address the elevated aPTT level and may lead to complications.

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