HESI RN
Evolve HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam
1. A client in the intensive care unit is started on continuous venovenous hemofiltration (CVVH). Which finding should prompt immediate action by the nurse?
- A. Blood pressure of 76/58 mm Hg
- B. Sodium level of 138 mEq/L
- C. Potassium level of 5.5 mEq/L
- D. Pulse rate of 90 beats/min
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Blood pressure of 76/58 mm Hg. In a client undergoing continuous venovenous hemofiltration (CVVH), hypotension can be a significant concern if replacement fluid does not adequately maintain blood pressure. The nurse should take immediate action to address hypotension to prevent further complications. The sodium level of 138 mEq/L is within normal range, and a potassium level of 5.5 mEq/L, while slightly elevated, may be expected in a patient with acute kidney injury. A pulse rate of 90 beats/min falls within the normal range and does not typically require immediate intervention in this context.
2. A female patient who is allergic to penicillin will begin taking an antibiotic to treat a lower respiratory tract infection. The patient tells the nurse that she almost always develops a vaginal yeast infection when she takes antibiotics and that she will take fluconazole (Diflucan) with the antibiotic being prescribed. Which macrolide should the nurse question for this patient?
- A. Azithromycin (Zithromax)
- B. Clarithromycin (Biaxin)
- C. Erythromycin (E-Mycin)
- D. Fidaxomicin (Dificid)
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The nurse should question the prescription of erythromycin for this patient. When erythromycin is given concurrently with fluconazole, erythromycin blood concentration and the risk of sudden cardiac death increase. Therefore, it is not recommended to use erythromycin in combination with fluconazole for this patient. Azithromycin, clarithromycin, and fidaxomicin are alternative macrolide antibiotics that can be considered for this patient without the same risk of interactions when used with fluconazole.
3. A client with a history of peptic ulcer disease (PUD) is admitted after vomiting bright red blood several times over the course of 2 hours. In reviewing the laboratory results, the nurse finds the client's hemoglobin is 12 g/dL (120g/L) and the hematocrit is 35% (0.35). Which action should the nurse prepare to take?
- A. Continue monitoring for blood loss
- B. Administer 1,000 mL (1L) of normal saline
- C. Transfuse 2 units of platelets
- D. Prepare the client for emergency surgery
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to prepare the client for emergency surgery. The client's presentation with bright red blood in vomitus suggests active bleeding, which is a medical emergency. With a hemoglobin of 12 g/dL and a hematocrit of 35%, the client is likely experiencing significant blood loss that may require surgical intervention to address the source of bleeding. Continuing to monitor for blood loss (Choice A) is not appropriate in this acute situation where immediate action is necessary. Administering normal saline (Choice B) may help with fluid resuscitation but does not address the underlying cause of bleeding. Transfusing platelets (Choice C) is not indicated in this scenario as platelets are involved in clot formation and are not the primary treatment for active bleeding in this context.
4. Following insertion of a LeVeen shunt in a client with cirrhosis of the liver, which assessment finding indicates to the nurse that the shunt is effective?
- A. Decreased abdominal girth
- B. Increased blood pressure
- C. Clear breath sounds
- D. Decreased serum albumin
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decreased abdominal girth. In a client with cirrhosis of the liver, a LeVeen shunt is used to treat ascites, which is the accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal cavity. A decrease in abdominal girth indicates that the shunt is effectively draining the ascitic fluid, relieving the client's abdominal distension. Choice B, increased blood pressure, is incorrect as a LeVeen shunt is not expected to impact blood pressure. Choice C, clear breath sounds, is unrelated to the effectiveness of a LeVeen shunt in managing ascites. Choice D, decreased serum albumin, is also not a direct indicator of the shunt's effectiveness in draining ascitic fluid.
5. A public health nurse is planning a vaccination clinic for a rural community. Which vaccine should the nurse prioritize for adults in this area?
- A. hepatitis A
- B. influenza
- C. varicella
- D. measles, mumps, rubella (MMR)
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'B: influenza.' Influenza vaccination is crucial for adults, particularly in rural areas where access to healthcare may be limited. Influenza can cause serious illness and complications, and vaccination helps protect individuals and prevent the spread of the virus. While vaccines for hepatitis A, varicella, and measles, mumps, rubella (MMR) are important, prioritizing influenza vaccination in this scenario is essential due to its seasonal prevalence and potential impact on public health. Hepatitis A and varicella vaccines are also important but may not be as immediately critical for this population. MMR vaccine is typically administered in childhood, so it is not the priority for adults in this scenario.