Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is a common complication of immobility?

• A. Muscle hypertrophy.
• B. Pressure ulcers.
• C. Bone fractures.
• D. Joint stiffness.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, Pressure ulcers. Immobility can lead to pressure ulcers due to prolonged pressure on the skin, especially over bony prominences. Muscle hypertrophy (Choice A) is not a common complication of immobility; instead, muscle atrophy is more likely to occur due to disuse. Bone fractures (Choice C) can result from trauma but are not directly associated with immobility unless there is a fall or accident. Joint stiffness (Choice D) can develop due to lack of movement but is not as common or severe as pressure ulcers in cases of prolonged immobility.

2. The nurse is caring for a client who is scheduled for hemodialysis. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor closely before, during, and after the procedure?

• A. Hemoglobin level.
• B. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level.
• C. Creatinine level.
• D. Serum potassium level.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Serum potassium level. Before, during, and after hemodialysis, monitoring the serum potassium level is crucial to prevent hyperkalemia, a potentially life-threatening complication. Hemodialysis is done to remove waste products and excess electrolytes like potassium from the blood. Monitoring other laboratory values like hemoglobin, BUN, and creatinine is important in assessing kidney function and anemia, but serum potassium level requires close monitoring during hemodialysis due to the risk of rapid shifts that can lead to cardiac arrhythmias.

3. A client is scheduled for a barium swallow (esophagography) in 2 days. The nurse, providing preprocedure instructions, should tell the client to:

• A. Eat a regular supper and breakfast
• B. Remove all metal and jewelry before the test
• C. Expect diarrhea for a few days after the procedure
• D. Take all oral medications as scheduled with milk on the day of the test

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Remove all metal and jewelry before the test.' Before a barium swallow procedure, the client should fast for 8 to 12 hours to ensure the stomach and intestines are empty for optimal visualization. Removing all metal and jewelry is essential to prevent any interference with x-ray imaging. Choice A is incorrect because the client should fast, not eat supper and breakfast, before the test. Choice C is incorrect as diarrhea is not an expected outcome of a barium swallow. Choice D is incorrect as the client should not take any oral medications with milk on the day of the test to ensure accurate test results.

4. A healthcare professional assesses clients on the medical-surgical unit. Which client is at greatest risk for the development of bacterial cystitis?

• A. A 36-year-old female who has never been pregnant
• B. A 42-year-old male who is prescribed cyclophosphamide
• C. A 58-year-old female who is not taking estrogen replacement
• D. A 77-year-old male with mild congestive heart failure

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Females are at higher risk of developing bacterial cystitis due to their shorter urethra compared to males. Postmenopausal women not on estrogen replacement therapy are particularly susceptible to cystitis because of changes in vaginal and urethral cells. This increases the risk of bacterial infection. The other options do not have the same level of risk as the postmenopausal woman not using hormone replacement therapy. A never-pregnant middle-aged woman does not have the same increased risk as a postmenopausal woman with hormonal changes.

5. In the change-of-shift report, the nurse is told that a client has a Stage 2 pressure ulcer. Which ulcer appearance is most likely to be observed?

• A. Shallow open ulcer with a red-pink wound bed.
• B. A deep pocket of infection and necrotic tissues.
• C. An area of erythema that is painful to touch.
• D. Visible subcutaneous tissue with sloughing.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A Stage 2 pressure ulcer typically presents as a shallow open ulcer with a red-pink wound bed. This appearance is characteristic of a Stage 2 pressure ulcer where there is partial thickness skin loss involving the epidermis and possibly the dermis. Choice B, a deep pocket of infection and necrotic tissues, is more indicative of a Stage 3 or Stage 4 pressure ulcer where the ulcer extends into deeper tissue layers. Choice C, an area of erythema that is painful to touch, is more commonly seen in early-stage pressure ulcers such as Stage 1. Choice D, visible subcutaneous tissue with sloughing, is characteristic of a more severe stage of pressure ulcer beyond Stage 2.

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