HESI RN
Evolve HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam Quizlet
1. When assessing the lower extremities of a client with peripheral vascular disease (PVD), the nurse notes bilateral ankle edema. The edema is related to:
- A. Competent venous valves.
- B. Decreased blood volume.
- C. Increase in muscular activity.
- D. Increased venous pressure.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Increased venous pressure.' In peripheral vascular disease (PVD), impaired blood flow leads to increased venous pressure in the lower extremities, causing fluid to leak out of the blood vessels and accumulate as edema. Choice A, 'Competent venous valves,' is incorrect because in PVD, the venous valves may be incompetent, contributing to venous pooling and edema. Choice B, 'Decreased blood volume,' is incorrect as PVD is associated with impaired blood flow rather than reduced blood volume. Choice C, 'Increase in muscular activity,' is incorrect as it does not directly relate to the development of edema in PVD.
2. What is an ideal goal of treatment set by the nurse in the care plan for a client diagnosed with chronic kidney disease (CKD) to reduce the risk of pulmonary edema?
- A. Maintaining oxygen saturation above 92%
- B. Absence of crackles and wheezes in lung sounds
- C. Maintaining a balanced intake and output
- D. Absence of shortness of breath at rest
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The ideal goal of treatment for a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) to reduce the risk of pulmonary edema is to maintain a balanced intake and output. This helps in achieving optimal fluid balance, enabling the heart to eject blood effectively without increasing pressure in the left ventricle and pulmonary vessels. While maintaining oxygen saturation above 92% is important for adequate tissue oxygenation, the primary focus in this scenario is fluid balance. Absence of crackles and wheezes in lung sounds is important to assess for pulmonary status, but it is not the primary goal to prevent pulmonary edema specifically. Similarly, absence of shortness of breath at rest is a relevant goal, but the emphasis in CKD management is on fluid balance to prevent pulmonary complications.
3. A client recovering from surgery has a large abdominal wound. Which of the following foods, high in vitamin C, should the nurse encourage the client to eat to promote wound healing?
- A. Steak
- B. Veal
- C. Cheese
- D. Oranges
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Oranges are a rich source of vitamin C, which is essential for wound healing due to its role in collagen synthesis. Citrus fruits like oranges, as well as other fruits and vegetables such as strawberries, kiwi, bell peppers, and broccoli, are high in vitamin C. Meats like steak and veal are not significant sources of vitamin C; they are primarily sources of protein. Cheese is not a good source of vitamin C but does provide calcium and protein.
4. A client who is scheduled for cardiac catheterization to rule out coronary occlusion should be informed by the nurse that:
- A. The procedure is performed in a darkened room in the radiology department
- B. It is necessary to lie quietly on a hard x-ray table for about 4 hours
- C. The room is bright and well lit, and it is best to keep the eyes closed
- D. The client may have feelings of warmth or flushing during the procedure
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Before cardiac catheterization, the nurse should inform the client that the procedure is performed in a darkened room in the radiology department, not the operating room. The client should expect to lie still on an x-ray table for the duration of the procedure, not necessarily for about 4 hours. Keeping the eyes closed is not necessary as the room is usually dimly lit. The client may experience sensations of warmth or flushing during the procedure due to catheter passage and dye injection, making choice D the correct answer.
5. The nurse is caring for a newly admitted patient who has severe gastroenteritis. The patient’s electrolytes reveal a serum sodium level of 140 mEq/L and a serum potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L. The nurse receives an order for intravenous 5% dextrose and normal saline with 20 mEq/L potassium chloride to infuse at 125 mL per hour. Which action is necessary prior to administering this fluid?
- A. Evaluate the patient’s urine output.
- B. Contact the provider to order arterial blood gases.
- C. Request an order for an initial potassium bolus.
- D. Suggest a diet low in sodium and potassium.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Prior to administering IV fluids containing potassium, it is crucial to evaluate the patient's urine output. If the urine output is less than 25 mL/hr or 600 mL/day, there is a risk of potassium accumulation. Patients with low urine output should not receive IV potassium to prevent potential complications. Contacting the provider for arterial blood gases is unnecessary in this scenario as it does not directly relate to the administration of IV fluids with potassium. Administering potassium as a bolus is not recommended due to potential adverse effects. While dietary considerations are important, suggesting a low-sodium and low-potassium diet is not the immediate action required before administering IV fluids with potassium chloride.
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