when assessing the lower extremities of a client with peripheral vascular disease pvd the nurse notes bilateral ankle edema the edema is related to
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Evolve HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam Quizlet

1. When assessing the lower extremities of a client with peripheral vascular disease (PVD), the nurse notes bilateral ankle edema. The edema is related to:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Increased venous pressure.' In peripheral vascular disease (PVD), impaired blood flow leads to increased venous pressure in the lower extremities, causing fluid to leak out of the blood vessels and accumulate as edema. Choice A, 'Competent venous valves,' is incorrect because in PVD, the venous valves may be incompetent, contributing to venous pooling and edema. Choice B, 'Decreased blood volume,' is incorrect as PVD is associated with impaired blood flow rather than reduced blood volume. Choice C, 'Increase in muscular activity,' is incorrect as it does not directly relate to the development of edema in PVD.

2. When planning care for a client newly diagnosed with open-angle glaucoma, the nurse identifies a priority nursing problem of 'visual sensory/perceptual alterations.' This problem is based on which etiology?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'C: Decreased peripheral vision.' Open-angle glaucoma leads to a gradual loss of peripheral vision due to damage to the optic nerve. This loss of peripheral vision is a hallmark sign of the condition and a primary reason for the visual sensory/perceptual alterations experienced by the client. Blurred distance vision (choice A) may occur but is not the priority nursing problem. Limited eye movement (choice B) and photosensitivity (choice D) are not typically associated with the sensory/perceptual alterations seen in open-angle glaucoma.

3. A client with chronic renal failure is receiving epoetin alfa (Epogen). The nurse should assess the client for which of the following complications?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypertension. Epoetin alfa (Epogen) is known to increase blood pressure by stimulating red blood cell production. Monitoring for hypertension is crucial to prevent complications such as heart failure or stroke. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because hypotension, hyperglycemia, and edema are not typically associated with epoetin alfa therapy in clients with chronic renal failure.

4. A healthcare professional has a prescription to collect a 24-hour urine specimen from a client. Which of the following measures should the healthcare professional take during this procedure?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is asking the client to void, discarding the specimen, and noting the start time. During a 24-hour urine collection, the first voided urine is discarded to ensure the test starts with an empty bladder. The specimen should be kept chilled, not at room temperature, to prevent bacterial growth. The last voided specimen is not discarded because it contributes to the total volume collected, so choice C is incorrect. Discarding the specimen and noting the start time is essential for accurate results in a timed quantitative determination like a 24-hour urine collection.

5. The client with chronic renal failure is being educated about the importance of a low-sodium diet. Which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Clients with chronic renal failure need to strictly limit their sodium intake. Advising the client to use table salt sparingly is incorrect as they should avoid table salt altogether to adhere to a low-sodium diet. Choice A is correct as rinsing canned vegetables can help reduce their sodium content. Choice C is correct as consuming frozen dinners labeled low-sodium can be a suitable option. Choice D is incorrect as it implies that avoiding only salty foods is sufficient, when in fact, overall sodium intake needs to be monitored closely.

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