Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following hormone ratios is MOST likely to be increased in a patient with PCOS?

• A. Progesterone/estrogen
• B. LH/FSH
• C. FSH/LH
• D. Glucagon/insulin

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In patients with Polycystic Ovary Syndrome (PCOS), the LH/FSH ratio is most likely to be increased. This hormonal imbalance is a key characteristic of PCOS, where elevated LH levels relative to FSH contribute to the pathophysiology of the condition. Choice A, progesterone/estrogen ratio, is not typically a defining feature of PCOS. Choice C, FSH/LH ratio, is the reverse of what is commonly observed in PCOS. Choice D, glucagon/insulin ratio, is not directly related to the hormonal imbalances seen in PCOS.

2. Which of the following investigations is done in Pelvic Inflammatory Disease?

• A. Paracentesis
• B. Culdocentesis
• C. Hysterectomy
• D. Douching

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Culdocentesis is the correct procedure performed to assess the pelvic cavity, often used in the diagnosis of Pelvic Inflammatory Disease. Paracentesis involves the aspiration of fluid from the abdominal cavity, not typically done for PID. Hysterectomy is the surgical removal of the uterus and is not a diagnostic investigation for PID. Douching is a hygiene practice and not a diagnostic procedure for PID.

3. Treatment for condylomata acuminata includes the following EXCEPT:

• A. Vulvectomy
• B. Podophyllin application
• C. Laser therapy
• D. Electrocautery

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Vulvectomy is not a standard treatment for condylomata acuminata, which are genital warts caused by human papillomavirus (HPV). Surgical removal of the vulva (vulvectomy) is an extreme measure and not typically indicated for treating this condition. Choices B, C, and D are valid treatments for condylomata acuminata. Podophyllin application, laser therapy, and electrocautery are commonly used to remove or destroy genital warts caused by HPV. These treatments aim to eliminate the visible warts and clear the infection.

4. Which of the following is the description of a normal cervix on speculum examination in a non-pregnant woman of reproductive age?

• A. Bright red mucosa surrounding the cervical os, in turn surrounded by smooth, pink mucosa
• B. Pink mucosa with multiple small, fluid-filled protrusions
• C. Pink, glistening, smooth mucosa of the exocervix, with a small round or fish-mouthed cervical os
• D. Smooth, pink mucosa and a small, fleshy protrusion through the cervical os

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct description of a normal cervix on speculum examination in a non-pregnant woman of reproductive age is pink, glistening, smooth mucosa of the exocervix, with a small round or fish-mouthed cervical os. This appearance is characteristic of a healthy cervix. Choice A is incorrect as a bright red mucosa is not normal. Choice B is incorrect as multiple small, fluid-filled protrusions suggest a different condition. Choice D is incorrect as a fleshy protrusion through the cervical os is abnormal.

5. The Wolffian duct is also known as ____________.

• A. Mesonephric duct
• B. Ejaculatory duct
• C. Major sublingual duct
• D. Cystic duct

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Mesonephric duct. The Wolffian duct is indeed also known as the mesonephric duct. This duct plays a vital role in the development of the male reproductive system by carrying sperm from the epididymis to the ejaculatory duct. Choice B, Ejaculatory duct, is incorrect as it refers to a different duct responsible for transporting semen from the vas deferens. Choices C and D, Major sublingual duct and Cystic duct, are unrelated to the Wolffian duct and are not correct answers in this context.

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