HESI RN
Reproductive Health Exam
1. Why is abortion important?
- A. It is easily conducted
- B. It can easily be diagnosed
- C. It causes serious complications such as infections and maternal death
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Abortion is important due to the serious complications it can cause, such as infections and maternal death. Choices A and B are incorrect because ease of conducting or diagnosing abortion procedures does not inherently make abortion important. Choice D is incorrect because not all the options listed are reasons why abortion is important; only choice C highlights the critical aspect of potential complications.
2. By which name is family planning currently known?
- A. Reproductive and child care
- B. Family and child care
- C. Reproductive and child health
- D. Reproductive and child health care
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Family planning is currently known as Reproductive and Child Health (RCH). It encompasses a broader scope beyond just care, focusing on the overall health aspects related to reproduction and child well-being. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the comprehensive nature of family planning under the term Reproductive and Child Health.
3. Which of the following Leopold maneuvers assesses the fetal lie?
- A. Fundal grip
- B. Umbilical grip
- C. Pawlick grip
- D. Pelvic grip
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Fundal grip. Fundal grip is a specific Leopold maneuver used to assess the fetal lie by palpating the upper abdomen to determine the position of the baby's back and presenting part. This maneuver helps healthcare providers understand the orientation of the fetus within the uterus. Choice B, Umbilical grip, is not a recognized Leopold maneuver and does not assess fetal lie. Choice C, Pawlick grip, and choice D, Pelvic grip, are also not part of the standard Leopold maneuvers used to determine fetal lie.
4. Which of the following is a common presentation in women with polycystic ovarian syndrome?
- A. Oligomenorrhea, obesity, and hirsutism
- B. Amenorrhea, generalized hair loss, and weight gain
- C. Repeated ectopic pregnancies and chronic pelvic pain
- D. Fatigue, body aches, and menorrhagia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Oligomenorrhea, obesity, and hirsutism. Polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) commonly presents with irregular periods (oligomenorrhea), obesity, and increased hair growth (hirsutism) due to hormonal imbalances. Choice B is incorrect as amenorrhea (absence of periods), generalized hair loss, and weight gain are not typical features of PCOS. Choice C is incorrect as repeated ectopic pregnancies and chronic pelvic pain are not characteristic of PCOS. Choice D is incorrect as fatigue, body aches, and menorrhagia (excessive menstrual bleeding) are not primary symptoms seen in PCOS.
5. At 34-40 weeks of pregnancy, the breast changes include:
- A. Nipples become prominent and mobile.
- B. Colostrum can be expressed.
- C. Breasts become tender.
- D. Montgomery's tubercles are prominent.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: During the 34-40 weeks of pregnancy, Montgomery's tubercles become prominent. These are sebaceous glands on the areola, not the nipples. Choice A is incorrect as it describes the changes in nipples, not Montgomery's tubercles. Choice B is incorrect as colostrum production usually starts around the 16th week. Choice C is incorrect as breast tenderness is more common in early pregnancy due to hormonal changes.
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