HESI RN
Reproductive Health Exam
1. What causes the changes in appearance seen in boys at the time of puberty?
- A. Prolactin
- B. Adrenaline
- C. Estrogen
- D. Testosterone
Correct answer: D
Rationale: During puberty, boys experience physical changes such as growth of facial and body hair, deepening of the voice, and muscle development. These changes are primarily driven by the hormone testosterone. Testosterone is responsible for the development of male secondary sexual characteristics. Therefore, the correct answer is testosterone. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because prolactin, adrenaline, and estrogen do not play a significant role in the development of male secondary sexual characteristics during puberty.
2. In the past, when was a woman only allowed to access Family planning methods?
- A. when she was married
- B. when she had more than four children
- C. when she produced a letter of consent from the husband
- D. when the doctors recommended
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In the past, women were often required to produce a letter of consent from their husband to access family planning services. This requirement stemmed from traditional beliefs and societal norms that placed men in control of such decisions. Choice A is incorrect because marital status alone did not determine access to family planning. Choice B is incorrect because the number of children a woman had did not dictate her access to family planning. Choice D is incorrect because medical recommendations alone did not influence a woman's access to family planning services in the past.
3. During an acute exacerbation of asthma, what is the nurse's first action for a client experiencing this condition?
- A. Administer a bronchodilator as prescribed.
- B. Check the client's oxygen saturation.
- C. Reassure the client and encourage deep breathing.
- D. Provide emotional support to reduce anxiety.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct first action when managing an acute exacerbation of asthma is to administer a bronchodilator as prescribed. Bronchodilators help open the airways and improve breathing in individuals experiencing an asthma exacerbation. Checking oxygen saturation (Choice B) is important but not the first action. Reassuring the client and encouraging deep breathing (Choice C) can be beneficial but should come after administering the bronchodilator. Providing emotional support to reduce anxiety (Choice D) is important but is not the initial priority in managing an acute exacerbation of asthma.
4. A 49-year-old female client arrives at the clinic for an annual exam and asks the nurse why she becomes excessively diaphoretic and feels warm during nighttime. What is the nurse's best response?
- A. Explain the effects of follicle-stimulating and luteinizing hormones.
- B. Discuss perimenopause and related comfort measures.
- C. Assess lung fields and check for a cough productive of blood-tinged mucus.
- D. Inquire if a fever above 101°F (38.3°C) has occurred in the last 24 hours.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. The symptoms described by the client, excessive diaphoresis and feeling warm at night, are characteristic of perimenopause. During this period, lower estrogen levels lead to surges in follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH), resulting in vasomotor instability, night sweats, and hot flashes. Therefore, discussing perimenopause and related comfort measures with the client is essential to provide education and support. Choice A is incorrect because explaining the effects of FSH and LH alone does not directly address the client's current symptoms. Choice C is irrelevant as it focuses on assessing lung fields and cough symptoms, which are not related to the client's menopausal symptoms. Choice D is not the best response as it is more focused on ruling out fever as a cause, which is not typically associated with the symptoms described by the client.
5. When administering ceftriaxone sodium (Rocephin) intravenously to a client, what finding requires the most immediate intervention by the nurse?
- A. Stridor
- B. Nausea
- C. Headache
- D. Pruritus
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Stridor. Stridor is a high-pitched sound that indicates airway obstruction. When administering ceftriaxone sodium (Rocephin) intravenously, if the client develops stridor, it is a medical emergency requiring immediate intervention to maintain a patent airway. Nausea, headache, and pruritus are important to assess, but they do not pose an immediate threat to the client's airway and would not require the same level of urgent intervention as stridor.