Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following describes the role of the nurse in advocating for a patient?

• A. The nurse ensures that the patient has all the information needed to make an informed decision about their care.
• B. The nurse advocates for the patient by communicating their needs and preferences to the healthcare team.
• C. The nurse advocates for the patient by ensuring that they receive the care they need and by protecting their rights.
• D. The nurse advocates for the patient by helping them navigate the healthcare system and access necessary resources.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Nurses advocate for patients by ensuring that they receive the necessary care and by protecting their rights. This involves speaking up for patients, ensuring they are treated with respect, and helping them access appropriate healthcare services. Option A, providing information for informed decision-making, is an important aspect of nursing care but not the central role of advocacy. Option B, communicating patients' needs to the healthcare team, is essential but more focused on teamwork and collaboration. Option D, helping patients navigate the healthcare system and access resources, is valuable but not the primary definition of advocacy in nursing.

2. A nurse manager is working to improve patient satisfaction on the unit. Which of the following best describes the nurse manager’s role in this process?

• A. The nurse manager should set clear expectations for patient satisfaction, monitor progress, and provide feedback to staff members to continuously improve patient care.
• B. The nurse manager should gather data on patient satisfaction, identify areas for improvement, and implement strategies to enhance the patient experience.
• C. The nurse manager should develop a patient satisfaction improvement plan, set measurable goals, and track progress over time to ensure continuous improvement.
• D. The nurse manager should involve patients and families in the patient satisfaction improvement process, gather feedback, and use it to make improvements to care delivery.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. The nurse manager's role in improving patient satisfaction involves setting clear expectations for patient satisfaction, monitoring progress, and providing feedback to staff members to continuously improve patient care. Choice B is incorrect as gathering data and implementing strategies are typically part of quality improvement initiatives but do not solely define the nurse manager's role. Choice C is incorrect because the nurse manager is responsible for setting expectations and monitoring progress rather than developing the improvement plan. Choice D is incorrect as involving patients and families and gathering feedback are important aspects, but the question specifically asks about the nurse manager's role, which primarily involves setting expectations, monitoring progress, and providing feedback to staff.

3. Dr. Kennedy prescribes glipizide (Glucotrol), an oral antidiabetic agent, for a male client with type 2 diabetes mellitus who has been having trouble controlling the blood glucose level through diet and exercise. Which medication instruction should the nurse provide?

• A. Be sure to take glipizide 30 minutes before meals.
• B. Glipizide may cause a low serum sodium level, so make sure you have your sodium level checked monthly.
• C. You won't need to check your blood glucose level after you start taking glipizide.
• D. Take glipizide after a meal to prevent heartburn.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Glipizide should be taken 30 minutes before meals to maximize its glucose-lowering effect.

4. In a 29-year-old female client who is being successfully treated for Cushing's syndrome, nurse Lyzette would expect a decline in:

• A. Serum glucose level.
• B. Hair loss.
• C. Bone mineralization.
• D. Menstrual flow.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serum glucose level. In Cushing's syndrome, there is excess cortisol production which can lead to hyperglycemia. Successful treatment of Cushing's syndrome aims to normalize cortisol levels, resulting in a decline in serum glucose levels. Choice B, hair loss, is not specifically associated with Cushing's syndrome or its treatment. Choice C, bone mineralization, is often compromised in Cushing's syndrome due to the effects of excess cortisol on bones; however, successful treatment would aim to improve bone health rather than decline it. Choice D, menstrual flow, is not directly linked to Cushing's syndrome or its treatment, so a decline in menstrual flow would not be an expected outcome of successful treatment.

5. A healthcare provider caring for a client with severe malnutrition reviews the laboratory results and notes a magnesium level of 1.0 mg/dL. Which electrocardiographic change would the healthcare provider expect to note based on the magnesium level?

• A. Prominent U waves
• B. Prolonged PR interval
• C. Depressed ST segment
• D. Widened QRS complexes

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A magnesium level of 1.0 mg/dL can cause a depressed ST segment on the ECG. Magnesium deficiency commonly leads to ST segment depression on an electrocardiogram. Prominent U waves are associated with hypokalemia, prolonged PR interval is seen in conditions like first-degree heart block, and widened QRS complexes are typically related to conditions affecting the conduction system of the heart, such as bundle branch blocks.

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