which of the following describes the role of the nurse in advocating for a patient
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Leadership and Management

1. Which of the following describes the role of the nurse in advocating for a patient?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Nurses advocate for patients by ensuring that they receive the necessary care and by protecting their rights. This involves speaking up for patients, ensuring they are treated with respect, and helping them access appropriate healthcare services. Option A, providing information for informed decision-making, is an important aspect of nursing care but not the central role of advocacy. Option B, communicating patients' needs to the healthcare team, is essential but more focused on teamwork and collaboration. Option D, helping patients navigate the healthcare system and access resources, is valuable but not the primary definition of advocacy in nursing.

2. A nurse manager is working to improve patient satisfaction on the unit. Which of the following best describes the nurse manager’s role in this process?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. The nurse manager's role in improving patient satisfaction involves setting clear expectations for patient satisfaction, monitoring progress, and providing feedback to staff members to continuously improve patient care. Choice B is incorrect as gathering data and implementing strategies are typically part of quality improvement initiatives but do not solely define the nurse manager's role. Choice C is incorrect because the nurse manager is responsible for setting expectations and monitoring progress rather than developing the improvement plan. Choice D is incorrect as involving patients and families and gathering feedback are important aspects, but the question specifically asks about the nurse manager's role, which primarily involves setting expectations, monitoring progress, and providing feedback to staff.

3. A client with type 1 DM is experiencing hypoglycemia. Which symptom should the nurse expect to observe?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tachycardia. In hypoglycemia, the body releases adrenaline in response to low blood glucose levels, leading to symptoms such as tachycardia (rapid heart rate). Choice B, polyuria, refers to excessive urination and is not a typical symptom of hypoglycemia. Choice C, flushed skin, is not a common symptom of hypoglycemia; instead, pale skin and sweating are more characteristic. Choice D, dry mouth, is not directly associated with hypoglycemia; rather, it can be a symptom of hyperglycemia or dehydration.

4. The client with hyperthyroidism is receiving propylthiouracil (PTU). The nurse should monitor for which of the following potential side effects?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Leukopenia. Propylthiouracil can lead to bone marrow suppression, resulting in leukopenia. Monitoring white blood cell counts is crucial to detect this potential side effect early. Choice B, hyperglycemia, is not typically associated with propylthiouracil use. Choice C, hypertension, is not a common side effect of propylthiouracil. Choice D, weight gain, is also not a typical side effect of propylthiouracil therapy.

5. Nurse Noemi administers glucagon to her diabetic client and then monitors the client for adverse drug reactions and interactions. Which type of drug interacts adversely with glucagon?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Oral anticoagulants. Glucagon may enhance the anticoagulant effect of oral anticoagulants, increasing the risk of bleeding. This interaction can be dangerous for the patient, leading to serious complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because anabolic steroids, beta-adrenergic blockers, and thiazide diuretics do not typically interact adversely with glucagon. It is crucial for healthcare providers to be aware of potential drug interactions to ensure patient safety and optimal outcomes.

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