Nursing Elites

1. A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus is prescribed metformin. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following potential side effects?

• A. Lactic acidosis
• B. Hypokalemia
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Weight gain

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, lactic acidosis. Metformin, a common medication for type 2 diabetes mellitus, can lead to lactic acidosis, particularly in individuals with renal impairment or predisposing factors. Monitoring for signs of lactic acidosis, such as muscle pain, weakness, trouble breathing, dizziness, and slow or uneven heart rate, is crucial to prevent serious complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as metformin does not typically cause hypokalemia, hyperglycemia, or weight gain as its primary side effects.

2. A client with DM is preparing for a foot care exam. The nurse should advise the client to:

• A. Wear loose-fitting shoes to protect the feet.
• B. Apply lotion to the tops and bottoms of the feet to keep the skin moist.
• C. Avoid using a heating pad to prevent burns on the feet.
• D. Avoid using sharp instruments to trim the toenails.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to advise the client to avoid using sharp instruments to trim the toenails. This is crucial because using sharp instruments can lead to injuries such as cuts or wounds, increasing the risk of infections, especially in clients with diabetes who have decreased sensation in their feet. Choice A is incorrect because tight shoes can restrict circulation and increase the risk of pressure sores. Choice B is incorrect because applying lotion between the toes can create a moist environment, leading to fungal infections. Choice C is incorrect because using a heating pad can lead to burns, which can go unnoticed due to decreased sensation in diabetic feet.

3. The client has received IV solutions for three (3) days through a 20-gauge IV catheter placed in the left cephalic vein. On morning rounds, the nurse notes the IV site is tender to palpation and a red streak has formed. Which action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Start a new IV in the right hand.
• B. Discontinue the intravenous line.
• C. Complete an incident record.
• D. Place a warm washcloth over the site.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The first action should be to discontinue the intravenous line to prevent further complications such as infection or thrombophlebitis. Starting a new IV in the right hand is not the priority as addressing the current issue is important. Completing an incident record can be done after addressing the immediate concern of the IV site. Placing a warm washcloth over the site does not address the red streak and tenderness, which may indicate an infection that requires discontinuation of the IV line.

4. The client is NPO and is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) via a subclavian line. Which precautions should the nurse implement? Select one that does not apply.

• A. Place the solution on an IV pump at the prescribed rate.
• B. Monitor blood glucose every twelve (12) hours.
• C. Weigh the client weekly, first thing in the morning.
• D. Change the IV tubing every three (3) days.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Precautions for clients receiving TPN include placing the solution on an IV pump to control the rate, monitoring blood glucose levels to detect hyperglycemia, and monitoring intake and output to assess fluid balance. Changing the IV tubing every three days is not a standard precaution for clients receiving TPN via a subclavian line.

5. After taking glipizide (Glucotrol) for 9 months, a male client experiences secondary failure. What would the nurse expect the physician to do?

• A. Initiate insulin therapy.
• B. Switch the client to a different oral antidiabetic agent.
• C. Prescribe an additional oral antidiabetic agent.
• D. Restrict carbohydrate intake to less than 30% of the total caloric intake.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client experiences secondary failure to an oral antidiabetic agent like glipizide, the next step is often to initiate insulin therapy. This is because secondary failure indicates that the current oral antidiabetic medication is no longer effective in managing blood glucose levels, and insulin therapy may be required to adequately control blood sugar. Switching to a different oral antidiabetic agent may not be effective if there is already resistance to the current agent. Adding another oral antidiabetic agent may not address the underlying issue of secondary failure. Restricting carbohydrate intake is important for diabetes management but is not the primary intervention indicated in this scenario of secondary failure to glipizide.

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