Nursing Elites

1. The client with hyperthyroidism is receiving propylthiouracil (PTU). The nurse should monitor for which of the following potential side effects?

• A. Leukopenia
• B. Hyperglycemia
• C. Hypertension
• D. Weight gain

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Leukopenia. Propylthiouracil can lead to bone marrow suppression, resulting in leukopenia. Monitoring white blood cell counts is crucial to detect this potential side effect early. Choice B, hyperglycemia, is not typically associated with propylthiouracil use. Choice C, hypertension, is not a common side effect of propylthiouracil. Choice D, weight gain, is also not a typical side effect of propylthiouracil therapy.

2. A client with hyperthyroidism is prescribed propranolol. The nurse understands that this medication is used to:

• A. Increase metabolism
• B. Reduce anxiety
• C. Decrease heart rate
• D. Increase blood pressure

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Propranolol is a beta-blocker commonly used in the management of hyperthyroidism. It works by blocking the effects of adrenaline, resulting in a decrease in heart rate and blood pressure. Choice A is incorrect because propranolol does not increase metabolism; instead, it may have a mild inhibitory effect. Choice B is incorrect as propranolol is not primarily used to reduce anxiety, although it may have some anxiolytic effects. Choice D is incorrect as propranolol actually decreases blood pressure by blocking the effects of adrenaline on the heart and blood vessels.

3. Nurse Noemi administers glucagon to her diabetic client and then monitors the client for adverse drug reactions and interactions. Which type of drug interacts adversely with glucagon?

• A. Oral anticoagulants
• B. Anabolic steroids
• C. Beta-adrenergic blockers
• D. Thiazide diuretics

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Oral anticoagulants. Glucagon may enhance the anticoagulant effect of oral anticoagulants, increasing the risk of bleeding. This interaction can be dangerous for the patient, leading to serious complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because anabolic steroids, beta-adrenergic blockers, and thiazide diuretics do not typically interact adversely with glucagon. It is crucial for healthcare providers to be aware of potential drug interactions to ensure patient safety and optimal outcomes.

4. A client with type 1 DM is experiencing signs of hypoglycemia. The nurse should expect which of the following symptoms?

• A. Tachycardia
• B. Polyuria
• C. Flushed skin
• D. Dry mouth

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client experiencing hypoglycemia, tachycardia is a common symptom. This occurs due to the release of adrenaline in response to low blood glucose levels, which stimulates the heart to beat faster. Polyuria, the increased production of urine, flushed skin, and dry mouth are not typical symptoms of hypoglycemia. Polyuria is more commonly associated with conditions like diabetes insipidus or uncontrolled diabetes mellitus. Flushed skin and dry mouth are not direct physiological responses to low blood sugar levels.

5. A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which of the following interventions should be the nurse's priority?

• A. Administer intravenous insulin
• B. Start an intravenous line and infuse normal saline
• C. Monitor serum potassium levels
• D. Obtain an arterial blood gas (ABG)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to start an intravenous line and infuse normal saline. In diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), the priority intervention is fluid resuscitation with normal saline to restore intravascular volume and improve perfusion. Administering insulin without first addressing dehydration and electrolyte imbalances can lead to further complications. Monitoring serum potassium levels and obtaining an arterial blood gas (ABG) are important aspects of DKA management but come after initial fluid resuscitation.

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