HESI RN
HESI Leadership and Management
1. A female adult client with a history of chronic hyperparathyroidism admits to being noncompliant. Based on initial assessment findings, the nurse formulates the nursing diagnosis of Risk for injury. To complete the nursing diagnosis statement for this client, which 'related-to' phrase should the nurse add?
- A. Related to bone demineralization resulting in pathologic fractures
- B. Related to exhaustion secondary to an accelerated metabolic rate
- C. Related to edema and dry skin secondary to fluid infiltration into the interstitial spaces
- D. Related to tetany secondary to a decreased serum calcium level
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Related to bone demineralization resulting in pathologic fractures.' In chronic hyperparathyroidism, bone demineralization occurs due to the excessive release of parathyroid hormone, leading to increased calcium resorption from bones. This process weakens the bones, making the client prone to pathologic fractures. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly relate to the increased risk of injury associated with chronic hyperparathyroidism. Exhaustion, edema, dry skin, and tetany are not the primary risks for injury in this client population.
2. The healthcare provider is preparing to administer a vaccine to a 5-year-old child. The child is visibly anxious and asks if the shot will hurt. What is the healthcare provider’s best response?
- A. It might hurt a little, but it will be over quickly
- B. It won't hurt at all, don't worry
- C. You're a big kid now, and big kids don't cry
- D. If you don't think about it, it won't hurt
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a child expresses fear or anxiety about receiving a vaccination, it is essential for the healthcare provider to provide honest and reassuring information. Choice A acknowledges the potential for some discomfort but also reassures the child that it will be over quickly. This response validates the child's feelings while also preparing them for the procedure. Choices B, C, and D either provide false reassurance, dismiss the child's feelings, or suggest avoidance, which are not appropriate responses in this situation.
3. A client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted with an exacerbation. Which laboratory value should be monitored closely?
- A. Arterial blood gas (ABG) values
- B. Serum potassium level
- C. Serum sodium level
- D. Serum magnesium level
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Serum potassium level. In COPD, especially when the client is receiving diuretics or corticosteroids, monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial. These medications can lead to potassium loss, potentially causing hypokalemia. Arterial blood gas (choice A) values are important in assessing respiratory status but are not the primary concern related to medication side effects. Serum sodium (choice C) and magnesium (choice D) levels are also important, but in the context of COPD exacerbation and medication effects, potassium monitoring takes precedence.
4. A child with sickle cell anemia is being treated for a vaso-occlusive crisis. Which intervention should the practical nurse (PN) implement?
- A. Apply cold packs to painful areas.
- B. Encourage increased fluid intake.
- C. Administer high doses of vitamin C.
- D. Provide low-calorie meals.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Encouraging increased fluid intake is crucial in managing vaso-occlusive crises in patients with sickle cell anemia. Dehydration can worsen these crises, so adequate hydration is essential to prevent complications and improve outcomes. Applying cold packs to painful areas may exacerbate vaso-occlusive crises by causing vasoconstriction. Administering high doses of vitamin C is not directly indicated for vaso-occlusive crises in sickle cell anemia. Providing low-calorie meals is not the priority during a vaso-occlusive crisis; maintaining adequate nutrition is important, but hydration takes precedence in this situation.
5. In which part of the fallopian tube is tubal abortion most common?
- A. Ampullary portion
- B. Isthmus
- C. Interstitial portion
- D. Infundibulum
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Tubal abortion is most common when the ovum implants in the interstitial portion of the fallopian tube. This location is the narrowest part of the tube, making it more prone to obstruction or difficulty in the passage of the fertilized ovum. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because tubal abortion is more likely to occur in the interstitial portion rather than the ampullary portion, isthmus, or infundibulum of the fallopian tube.