Nursing Elites

1. A female adult client with a history of chronic hyperparathyroidism admits to being noncompliant. Based on initial assessment findings, the nurse formulates the nursing diagnosis of Risk for injury. To complete the nursing diagnosis statement for this client, which 'related-to' phrase should the nurse add?

• A. Related to bone demineralization resulting in pathologic fractures
• B. Related to exhaustion secondary to an accelerated metabolic rate
• C. Related to edema and dry skin secondary to fluid infiltration into the interstitial spaces
• D. Related to tetany secondary to a decreased serum calcium level

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Related to bone demineralization resulting in pathologic fractures.' In chronic hyperparathyroidism, bone demineralization occurs due to the excessive release of parathyroid hormone, leading to increased calcium resorption from bones. This process weakens the bones, making the client prone to pathologic fractures. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly relate to the increased risk of injury associated with chronic hyperparathyroidism. Exhaustion, edema, dry skin, and tetany are not the primary risks for injury in this client population.

2. The client with type 1 DM asks why it is necessary to rotate injection sites when managing insulin therapy. The nurse's best response is:

• A. It helps prevent skin irritation.
• B. It helps prevent scar tissue buildup.
• C. It ensures more consistent insulin absorption.
• D. It makes the injections less painful.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Rotating injection sites is necessary to ensure more consistent insulin absorption. This practice helps maintain stable blood glucose levels by preventing the formation of lipohypertrophy (fatty lumps under the skin) at injection sites. Choices A and B are incorrect as the primary purpose of rotating injection sites is not focused on preventing skin irritation or scar tissue buildup. While rotating injection sites may contribute to reducing pain over time, the primary benefit is the consistency in insulin absorption to support glycemic control, making choice D less relevant.

3. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with suspected syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Which of the following laboratory findings is most consistent with this condition?

• A. Increased serum sodium
• B. Decreased urine specific gravity
• C. Decreased serum osmolality
• D. Increased serum potassium

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Decreased serum osmolality. Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) is characterized by the excessive release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), leading to water retention and dilutional hyponatremia. The dilution of sodium results in decreased serum osmolality. Option A is incorrect because SIADH causes hyponatremia, resulting in decreased serum sodium levels. Option B is incorrect because SIADH leads to concentrated urine with increased urine specific gravity. Option D is incorrect as SIADH does not typically affect serum potassium levels.

4. A new unit manager works hard to get to know each of the staff members on the unit and determine what each staff member needs in order to effectively do their job. What type of management best describes this manager?

• A. Servant leader-style manager
• B. Networking manager
• C. Coaching manager
• D. Monitoring manager

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A Servant leader-style manager focuses on understanding and meeting the needs of staff members to help them grow and perform at their best. This type of manager prioritizes serving the team and facilitating their development. Networking managers focus on building connections and relationships outside the team. Coaching managers provide guidance, support, and feedback to help employees improve. Monitoring managers primarily oversee and supervise tasks without a strong emphasis on individual needs or growth.

5. The client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is being educated by the nurse about the signs of hypoglycemia. Which of the following symptoms should the client be instructed to report immediately?

• A. Shakiness
• B. Sweating
• C. Confusion
• D. Increased thirst

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Confusion is a critical symptom of hypoglycemia that may indicate a more severe drop in blood glucose levels. Immediate reporting of confusion is crucial as it could progress rapidly to unconsciousness or seizures, necessitating prompt intervention. Shakiness and sweating are common early signs of hypoglycemia but may not require immediate intervention unless other severe symptoms present. Increased thirst is more indicative of hyperglycemia rather than hypoglycemia, and while it should be monitored, it is not a symptom requiring immediate reporting.

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