HESI RN
HESI Leadership and Management
1. A client with type 1 DM is experiencing hypoglycemia. Which symptom should the nurse expect to observe?
- A. Tachycardia
- B. Polyuria
- C. Flushed skin
- D. Dry mouth
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tachycardia. In hypoglycemia, the body releases adrenaline in response to low blood glucose levels, leading to symptoms such as tachycardia (rapid heart rate). Choice B, polyuria, refers to excessive urination and is not a typical symptom of hypoglycemia. Choice C, flushed skin, is not a common symptom of hypoglycemia; instead, pale skin and sweating are more characteristic. Choice D, dry mouth, is not directly associated with hypoglycemia; rather, it can be a symptom of hyperglycemia or dehydration.
2. A healthcare professional is reading a physician's progress notes in the client's record and reads that the physician has documented 'insensible fluid loss of approximately 800 mL daily.' The healthcare professional understands that this type of fluid loss can occur through:
- A. The skin
- B. Urinary output
- C. Wound drainage
- D. The gastrointestinal tract
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Insensible fluid loss refers to the fluid lost from the body that is not easily measured, such as through sweating and respiration. The skin is a major contributor to insensible fluid loss due to evaporation of water through the skin. Choice B, urinary output, represents measurable fluid loss through urine excretion. Choice C, wound drainage, is a measurable form of fluid loss that occurs externally from a wound. Choice D, the gastrointestinal tract, primarily involves fluid loss through feces and is also a measurable form of output. Therefore, the correct answer is 'A: The skin,' as it is the main route for insensible fluid loss.
3. The client with hyperparathyroidism is being taught about dietary management. Which of the following foods should the client avoid?
- A. Bananas
- B. Spinach
- C. Milk
- D. Processed meats
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Clients with hyperparathyroidism should avoid high-calcium foods like milk because they already have elevated calcium levels. Bananas and spinach are not high in calcium and can be included in the diet. Processed meats are not specifically contraindicated in hyperparathyroidism, so they are not the correct answer.
4. A female client with a history of pheochromocytoma is admitted to the hospital in an acute hypertensive crisis. To reverse the hypertensive crisis caused by pheochromocytoma, nurse Lyka expects to administer:
- A. Phentolamine (Regitine)
- B. Methyldopa (Aldomet)
- C. Mannitol (Osmitrol)
- D. Felodipine (Plendil)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a hypertensive crisis due to pheochromocytoma, the appropriate medication to administer is Phentolamine (Regitine), an alpha-adrenergic blocker. Phentolamine acts quickly to block the effects of excess catecholamines that are released in pheochromocytoma, helping to rapidly lower blood pressure. Methyldopa (Aldomet) is an alpha-2 adrenergic agonist used for chronic hypertension, not for acute crises like pheochromocytoma. Mannitol (Osmitrol) is an osmotic diuretic used to reduce intracranial pressure and treat cerebral edema, not indicated for hypertensive crises. Felodipine (Plendil) is a calcium channel blocker used for chronic management of hypertension, not for acute hypertensive crises like those seen in pheochromocytoma.
5. Nurse Noemi administers glucagon to her diabetic client and then monitors the client for adverse drug reactions and interactions. Which type of drug interacts adversely with glucagon?
- A. Oral anticoagulants
- B. Anabolic steroids
- C. Beta-adrenergic blockers
- D. Thiazide diuretics
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Oral anticoagulants. Glucagon may enhance the anticoagulant effect of oral anticoagulants, increasing the risk of bleeding. This interaction can be dangerous for the patient, leading to serious complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because anabolic steroids, beta-adrenergic blockers, and thiazide diuretics do not typically interact adversely with glucagon. It is crucial for healthcare providers to be aware of potential drug interactions to ensure patient safety and optimal outcomes.
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