Nursing Elites

1. A client with type 1 DM is experiencing hypoglycemia. Which symptom should the nurse expect to observe?

• A. Tachycardia
• B. Polyuria
• C. Flushed skin
• D. Dry mouth

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tachycardia. In hypoglycemia, the body releases adrenaline in response to low blood glucose levels, leading to symptoms such as tachycardia (rapid heart rate). Choice B, polyuria, refers to excessive urination and is not a typical symptom of hypoglycemia. Choice C, flushed skin, is not a common symptom of hypoglycemia; instead, pale skin and sweating are more characteristic. Choice D, dry mouth, is not directly associated with hypoglycemia; rather, it can be a symptom of hyperglycemia or dehydration.

2. The nurse is providing dietary instructions to a client with DM. The nurse instructs the client to include which item in the diet?

• A. High-fat foods
• B. Low-carbohydrate foods
• C. High-protein foods
• D. High-fiber foods

Correct answer: D

Rationale: High-fiber foods are beneficial for clients with diabetes because they help regulate blood glucose levels by slowing down the absorption of sugar. Additionally, high-fiber foods aid in maintaining satiety, supporting weight management, and preventing constipation. High-fat foods (choice A) are not recommended for clients with diabetes due to their potential negative impact on heart health and weight. While low-carbohydrate foods (choice B) can be part of a diabetes-friendly diet, high-fiber foods are more specifically beneficial for managing blood sugar levels. High-protein foods (choice C) can be included in moderation in a diabetic diet, but they are not the primary focus when it comes to improving glycemic control.

3. A nurse manager in the emergency department considers policy changes in the organization and changes in the community, and tries to predict how these may impact the functioning of the unit. Which of the following decisional activities best describes this manager's actions?

• A. Resource allocation
• B. Monitoring
• C. Job analysis and redesign
• D. Planning for the future

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Planning for the future.' In this scenario, the nurse manager is engaging in strategic planning by considering policy changes and community dynamics to forecast potential impacts on the unit's functioning. This decisional activity involves anticipating future changes, challenges, and opportunities, and preparing the unit to adapt accordingly. Choice A, 'Resource allocation,' involves distributing resources effectively to support daily operations, which is not the primary focus of the nurse manager's actions described. Choice B, 'Monitoring,' typically involves overseeing current activities and performance to ensure adherence to standards and goals, rather than proactively planning for future changes as the nurse manager is doing. Choice C, 'Job analysis and redesign,' pertains to evaluating and modifying job roles and responsibilities within the unit, which is not directly related to the strategic forecasting and planning involved in anticipating organizational and community impacts.

4. A female client with a history of pheochromocytoma is admitted to the hospital in an acute hypertensive crisis. To reverse the hypertensive crisis caused by pheochromocytoma, nurse Lyka expects to administer:

• A. Phentolamine (Regitine)
• B. Methyldopa (Aldomet)
• C. Mannitol (Osmitrol)
• D. Felodipine (Plendil)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a hypertensive crisis due to pheochromocytoma, the appropriate medication to administer is Phentolamine (Regitine), an alpha-adrenergic blocker. Phentolamine acts quickly to block the effects of excess catecholamines that are released in pheochromocytoma, helping to rapidly lower blood pressure. Methyldopa (Aldomet) is an alpha-2 adrenergic agonist used for chronic hypertension, not for acute crises like pheochromocytoma. Mannitol (Osmitrol) is an osmotic diuretic used to reduce intracranial pressure and treat cerebral edema, not indicated for hypertensive crises. Felodipine (Plendil) is a calcium channel blocker used for chronic management of hypertension, not for acute hypertensive crises like those seen in pheochromocytoma.

5. What is the approximate duration of action for intermediate-acting insulins like NPH?

• A. 6-8 hours.
• B. 10-14 hours.
• C. 16-20 hours.
• D. 24-28 hours.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: '16-20 hours.' Intermediate-acting insulins like NPH typically have a duration of action of approximately 16-20 hours. This prolonged action makes them effective in managing blood glucose levels over an extended period. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the typical duration of action for intermediate-acting insulins. Choice A (6-8 hours) is too short, choice B (10-14 hours) is also shorter than the typical duration, and choice D (24-28 hours) is too long for intermediate-acting insulins like NPH.

Similar Questions