Nursing Elites

1. A client with type 1 DM is experiencing hypoglycemia. Which symptom should the nurse expect to observe?

• A. Tachycardia
• B. Polyuria
• C. Flushed skin
• D. Dry mouth

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tachycardia. In hypoglycemia, the body releases adrenaline in response to low blood glucose levels, leading to symptoms such as tachycardia (rapid heart rate). Choice B, polyuria, refers to excessive urination and is not a typical symptom of hypoglycemia. Choice C, flushed skin, is not a common symptom of hypoglycemia; instead, pale skin and sweating are more characteristic. Choice D, dry mouth, is not directly associated with hypoglycemia; rather, it can be a symptom of hyperglycemia or dehydration.

2. The client has hyperparathyroidism. Which of the following dietary instructions should the nurse provide?

• A. Increase calcium intake
• B. Limit phosphorus intake
• C. Increase fluid intake
• D. Limit vitamin D intake

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to 'Increase fluid intake.' This is because increasing fluid intake helps prevent kidney stones, a common complication of hyperparathyroidism. While calcium is involved in the condition, increasing calcium intake is not recommended as it can exacerbate hypercalcemia, which is commonly present in hyperparathyroidism. Limiting phosphorus intake is not directly related to managing hyperparathyroidism. Limiting vitamin D intake is also not typically necessary in managing hyperparathyroidism, as it is usually a calcium and PTH-related issue.

3. A nurse is assigned to care for a group of clients. On review of the clients' medical records, the nurse determines that which client is at risk for excess fluid volume?

• A. The client taking diuretics
• B. The client with renal failure
• C. The client with an ileostomy
• D. The client who requires gastrointestinal suctioning

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Clients with renal failure are unable to excrete fluids effectively, leading to an increased risk of fluid volume excess. Option A, the client taking diuretics, would be at risk for fluid volume deficit due to increased urine output caused by the diuretics. Option C, the client with an ileostomy, is at risk for fluid volume deficit due to increased output from the ileostomy. Option D, the client who requires gastrointestinal suctioning, may be at risk for dehydration, but not specifically excess fluid volume.

4. The nurse is caring for a client with hyperaldosteronism. Which of the following laboratory results would the nurse expect?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hypernatremia
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Hypocalcemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In hyperaldosteronism, there is an excess of aldosterone production, leading to increased sodium retention and potassium excretion by the kidneys. This results in hypokalemia (low potassium levels). Therefore, the correct answer is hypokalemia (Choice A). Hypernatremia (Choice B) is an incorrect choice as hyperaldosteronism primarily affects potassium and not sodium levels. Hyperkalemia (Choice C) is also incorrect because hyperaldosteronism causes potassium excretion, leading to low levels. Hypocalcemia (Choice D) is not typically associated with hyperaldosteronism; instead, it is more related to conditions affecting calcium regulation.

5. Dr. Kennedy prescribes glipizide (Glucotrol), an oral antidiabetic agent, for a male client with type 2 diabetes mellitus who has been having trouble controlling the blood glucose level through diet and exercise. Which medication instruction should the nurse provide?

• A. Be sure to take glipizide 30 minutes before meals.
• B. Glipizide may cause a low serum sodium level, so make sure you have your sodium level checked monthly.
• C. You won't need to check your blood glucose level after you start taking glipizide.
• D. Take glipizide after a meal to prevent heartburn.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Glipizide should be taken 30 minutes before meals to maximize its glucose-lowering effect.

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