which of the following conditions is most commonly associated with a high risk of stroke
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Evolve HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam Quizlet

1. Which of the following conditions is most commonly associated with a high risk of stroke?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Hypertension is the correct answer. Hypertension, also known as high blood pressure, is a major risk factor for stroke because it puts increased pressure on blood vessels in the brain, making them more prone to damage and increasing the likelihood of a stroke. While diabetes, obesity, and smoking are also risk factors for stroke, hypertension is the most commonly associated condition with a high risk of stroke due to its direct impact on the blood vessels.

2. Which of the following is a common cause of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Smoking is the correct answer as it is a well-established common cause of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Smoking leads to long-term damage to the lungs, contributing to the development of COPD. Choice B, asthma, is not a cause but a separate respiratory condition characterized by airway inflammation and hyperresponsiveness. Allergies, choice C, are not a direct cause of COPD but can exacerbate symptoms in individuals with existing COPD. Chronic bronchitis, choice D, is a type of COPD, not a cause of COPD itself, making it an incorrect choice in this context.

3. A client who has heart failure is admitted with a serum potassium level of 2.9 mEq/L. Which action is most important for the nurse to implement?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Hypokalemia, defined as a serum potassium level below the normal range of 3.5 to 5 mEq/L, can lead to changes in myocardial irritability and ECG waveform, potentially causing life-threatening dysrhythmias. Therefore, the priority action for the nurse is to initiate continuous cardiac monitoring to promptly detect any abnormal heart rhythms or ventricular ectopy. This monitoring is crucial for assessing the impact of potassium replacement therapy on the cardiac rhythm and ensuring the safety of the client. While administering potassium chloride is important for correcting the hypokalemia, it should occur after cardiac monitoring is in place. Consulting with a dietitian and educating about diuretic side effects are relevant aspects of care but are not the immediate priority in this situation where cardiac monitoring takes precedence for timely intervention.

4. The healthcare provider is assessing a client who is receiving hemodialysis for the first time. Which of the following findings should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Nausea and vomiting are critical symptoms that should be reported immediately when a client is receiving hemodialysis for the first time. These symptoms could indicate a severe complication, such as hypotension, infection, electrolyte imbalance, or other adverse reactions to the procedure. It is essential to address these symptoms promptly to prevent further complications or harm to the client. Choices A, C, and D are not immediate concerns during the first hemodialysis session and can be addressed appropriately after addressing the urgent issue of nausea and vomiting.

5. The nurse assumes care for a patient who is currently receiving a dose of intravenous vancomycin (Vancocin) infusing at 20 mg/min. The nurse notes red blotches on the patient’s face, neck, and chest and assesses a blood pressure of 80/55 mm Hg. Which action will the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When vancomycin is infused too rapidly, “red man” syndrome may occur; the rate should be 10 mg/min to prevent this. This is a toxic reaction, not an allergic one, so epinephrine is not indicated. Stevens-Johnson syndrome is characterized by a rash and fever. Red man syndrome is not related to renal function.

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