Nursing Elites

1. A client scheduled for the surgical creation of an ileal conduit expresses anxiety and asks about having a drainage tube. How should the nurse respond?

• A. I will ask the provider to prescribe you an antianxiety medication.
• B. Would you like to discuss the procedure with your doctor once more?
• C. I think it would be nice to not have to worry about finding a bathroom.
• D. Would you like to speak with someone who has an ileal conduit?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most appropriate response for the nurse is to offer the client the opportunity to speak with someone who has undergone the same procedure. This allows the client to gain insight, ask questions, and share concerns with someone who has firsthand experience, which can help alleviate anxiety and promote a positive self-image. Seeking an antianxiety medication does not address the client's emotional concerns or promote a positive attitude towards the procedure. Discussing the procedure with the doctor again may provide more information but may not offer the same level of emotional support and understanding as speaking with someone who has lived through the experience. Commenting on the convenience of not having to search for a bathroom minimizes the client's anxiety and overlooks the emotional aspect of the client's concerns.

2. When providing care for an unconscious client who has seizures, which nursing intervention is most essential?

• A. Ensure oral suction is available.
• B. Maintain the client in a semi-Fowler's position.
• C. Provide frequent mouth care.
• D. Keep the room at a comfortable temperature.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During seizures in an unconscious client, ensuring oral suction is available is crucial to managing secretions and preventing aspiration. This intervention helps maintain a clear airway and reduce the risk of complications. Maintaining the client in a semi-Fowler's position (Choice B) may be important for airway management but is not as critical as having oral suction ready. Providing frequent mouth care (Choice C) and keeping the room at a comfortable temperature (Choice D) are important aspects of overall care but are not as urgently needed as ensuring oral suction for managing secretions during seizures.

3. The nurse is monitoring a client who is receiving continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis. The nurse should notify the physician of which of the following findings?

• A. Clear dialysate outflow.
• B. Cloudy dialysate outflow.
• C. Decreased urine output.
• D. Increased blood pressure.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Cloudy dialysate outflow is an indication of peritonitis, a serious complication of peritoneal dialysis that requires immediate medical attention. Clear dialysate outflow is a normal finding indicating proper dialysis function and should not raise concern. Decreased urine output may be expected in a client undergoing dialysis due to the removal of excess fluids from the body. Increased blood pressure is a common complication in clients with kidney disease but is not directly related to cloudy dialysate outflow.

4. The healthcare professional is reviewing a patient’s chart prior to administering gentamicin (Garamycin) and notes that the last serum peak drug level was 9 mcg/mL and the last trough level was 2 mcg/mL. What action will the healthcare professional take?

• A. Administer the next dose as prescribed.
• B. Obtain repeat peak and trough levels before administering the next dose.
• C. Report potential drug toxicity to the patient’s healthcare provider.
• D. Notify the patient’s healthcare provider of decreased drug therapeutic level.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Gentamicin peak levels should ideally be between 5 to 8 mcg/mL, and trough levels should be within the range of 0.5 to 2 mcg/mL to ensure therapeutic efficacy while minimizing toxicity risk. In this case, the patient's peak level is above the recommended range, and the trough level is at the higher end, indicating potential drug toxicity. Therefore, the correct action for the healthcare professional is to report the possibility of drug toxicity to the patient’s healthcare provider. Administering the next dose as prescribed (Choice A) would exacerbate the toxicity risk. Obtaining repeat peak and trough levels (Choice B) may confirm the current levels but does not address the immediate concern of potential toxicity. Reporting a decreased drug therapeutic level (Choice D) is not the priority in this scenario, as the focus should be on addressing the potential toxicity issue.

5. During CPR, when attempting to ventilate a client's lungs, the nurse notes that the chest is not moving. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Use a laryngoscope to check for a foreign body lodged in the airway.
• B. Reposition the head to ensure that the airway is properly opened.
• C. Turn the client to the side and administer three back blows.
• D. Perform a finger sweep of the mouth to clear any obstructions.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most common reason for inadequate lung aeration during CPR is the incorrect positioning of the head, leading to airway obstruction. Therefore, the initial action should be to reposition the head to open the airway properly and attempt to ventilate again. Using a laryngoscope to check for foreign bodies in the airway (Choice A) is not the first step and could delay crucial interventions. Turning the client to the side and administering back blows (Choice C) is not indicated in this scenario as the focus is on ventilating the lungs. Performing a finger sweep of the mouth (Choice D) is not recommended as it may push obstructions further into the airway during CPR.

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