Nursing Elites

1. A patient has been taking spironolactone (Aldactone) to treat heart failure. The nurse will monitor for

• A. hyperkalemia.
• B. hypermagnesemia.
• C. hypocalcemia.
• D. hypoglycemia.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: hyperkalemia. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic commonly used in heart failure management. One of the major side effects of spironolactone is hyperkalemia, which is an elevated level of potassium in the blood. Monitoring for hyperkalemia is crucial as it can lead to serious cardiac arrhythmias. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Hypermagnesemia (choice B) is not typically associated with spironolactone use. Hypocalcemia (choice C) and hypoglycemia (choice D) are also not directly linked to the use of spironolactone in heart failure treatment.

2. What is the most important nursing intervention for a patient with increased intracranial pressure (ICP)?

• A. Elevate the head of the bed to 30 degrees.
• B. Administer diuretics to reduce fluid volume.
• C. Administer corticosteroids to reduce inflammation.
• D. Keep the patient in a supine position.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed to 30 degrees is crucial for a patient with increased intracranial pressure (ICP) because it helps promote venous drainage from the brain, thereby reducing ICP. Keeping the head of the bed elevated helps facilitate cerebral perfusion and can prevent a further increase in ICP. Administering diuretics (Choice B) may be considered in some cases to reduce fluid volume, but it is not the most critical intervention for immediate ICP management. Administering corticosteroids (Choice C) is not typically indicated for managing increased ICP unless there is a specific underlying condition requiring their use. Keeping the patient in a supine position (Choice D) can actually worsen ICP by impeding venous outflow from the brain, making it an incorrect choice for this scenario.

3. The nurse is preparing to administer intravenous gentamicin to an infant through an intermittent needle. The nurse notes that the infant has not had a wet diaper for several hours. The nurse will perform which action?

• A. Administer the medication and give the infant extra oral fluids.
• B. Contact the provider to request adding intravenous fluids when giving the medication.
• C. Give the medication and obtain a serum peak drug level 45 minutes after the dose.
• D. Hold the dose and contact the provider to request a serum trough drug level.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the infant not having a wet diaper for several hours indicates a potential decrease in urine output, which can be a sign of nephrotoxicity related to gentamicin. The correct action for the nurse is to hold the dose and contact the provider to request a serum trough drug level. This is important to monitor the drug levels and ensure that they are not reaching toxic levels. Administering the medication without addressing the decreased urine output could potentially lead to further nephrotoxicity. Contacting the provider to add intravenous fluids or obtaining a serum peak drug level are not the most appropriate actions in this situation as the priority is to assess for potential nephrotoxicity and ensure patient safety.

4. A client diagnosed with a history of asthma and bronchitis arrives at the clinic with shortness of breath, productive cough with thickened, tenacious mucus, and the inability to walk up a flight of stairs without experiencing breathlessness. Which action is most important for the nurses to instruct the client about self-care?

• A. Call the clinic if undesirable side effects of medications occur
• B. Avoid crowded enclosed areas to reduce pathogen exposure
• C. Increase the daily intake of oral fluids to liquefy secretions
• D. Teach anxiety reduction methods for feelings of suffocation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Increasing the daily intake of oral fluids is crucial for clients with asthma and bronchitis as it helps to liquefy thickened mucus, making it easier to clear the airways and manage symptoms. This self-care measure can improve the client's ability to breathe more effectively. Choice A is not the most immediate concern when addressing thickened mucus and breathing difficulties. While avoiding crowded areas is beneficial to prevent respiratory infections, it is not directly related to managing thickened secretions. Teaching anxiety reduction methods is important for overall well-being, but it does not directly address the physiological issue of thickened mucus in the airways.

5. What is a key intervention for a patient with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)?

• A. Administering insulin
• B. Administering IV fluids
• C. Administering oral glucose
• D. Administering oral fluids

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering insulin is a crucial intervention for a patient with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) because it helps in managing hyperglycemia and ketosis by promoting the uptake of glucose by cells and inhibiting the production of ketones. IV fluids are necessary to correct dehydration and electrolyte imbalances commonly seen in DKA but are not the primary treatment for the condition. Administering oral glucose would exacerbate hyperglycemia in a patient with DKA, while administering oral fluids alone would not effectively address the underlying metabolic disturbances seen in DKA.

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