Nursing Elites

1. What is the priority assessment for a patient receiving intravenous morphine?

• A. Assessing the patient's blood pressure.
• B. Monitoring the patient's respiratory rate.
• C. Checking the patient's pain level.
• D. Monitoring the patient's oxygen saturation.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is monitoring the patient's respiratory rate. When a patient receives intravenous morphine, the priority assessment is to monitor the respiratory rate due to the risk of respiratory depression associated with morphine. This assessment helps in detecting and managing any potential respiratory complications promptly. Assessing blood pressure, checking pain level, and monitoring oxygen saturation are important aspects of patient care but are not the priority when considering the specific risk of respiratory depression with intravenous morphine.

2. The nurse is preparing to administer trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) to a patient who is being treated for a urinary tract infection. The nurse learns that the patient has type 2 diabetes mellitus and takes a sulfonylurea oral antidiabetic drug. The nurse will monitor this patient closely for which effect?

• A. Headaches
• B. Hypertension
• C. Hypoglycemia
• D. Superinfection

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a patient takes oral antidiabetic agents (sulfonylurea) along with sulfonamides like trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole, it can lead to an increased hypoglycemic effect. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the patient closely for hypoglycemia. Headaches, hypertension, and superinfection are not typically associated with the interaction between sulfonamides and sulfonylureas. Examples of antidiabetic sulfonylurea medications include glipizide, glimepiride, glyburide, tolazamide, and tolbutamide.

3. When preparing to examine a client’s skin using a Wood light, what should the nurse do to facilitate this procedure?

• A. Darken the examining room
• B. Administer a local anesthetic
• C. Obtain a signed informed consent
• D. Shave the skin and scrub it with povidone-iodine (Betadine)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When using a Wood light to examine the skin, the nurse should darken the examining room. This is necessary because the Wood light emits long-wavelength UV light, which is better visualized in a darkened environment. Administering a local anesthetic (Choice B) is not needed for this procedure. Obtaining a signed informed consent (Choice C) is not directly related to using a Wood light for skin examination. Shaving the skin and scrubbing it with povidone-iodine (Betadine) (Choice D) is not required and may not be appropriate for this type of skin examination.

4. In a patient with cirrhosis, which of the following lab results is most concerning?

• A. Elevated liver enzymes.
• B. Low albumin levels.
• C. Elevated bilirubin levels.
• D. Low platelet count.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a patient with cirrhosis, a low platelet count is the most concerning lab result. Thrombocytopenia, or low platelet count, is common in cirrhosis due to impaired platelet production in the liver. It significantly increases the risk of bleeding and can lead to serious complications such as hemorrhage. Elevated liver enzymes (Choice A) are expected in cirrhosis but may not directly indicate the severity of the disease. Low albumin levels (Choice B) are common in cirrhosis and can contribute to fluid retention but do not pose an immediate risk of bleeding. Elevated bilirubin levels (Choice C) are also expected in cirrhosis and typically indicate impaired liver function but do not directly increase the risk of bleeding as much as a low platelet count.

5. What is the correct procedure for performing an ophthalmoscopic examination on a client's right retina?

• A. Instruct the client to focus on a distant object behind the examiner and not move their eyes during the exam.
• B. Set the ophthalmoscope on the plus 2 to 3 lens and hold it in front of the examiner's right eye.
• C. From a distance of 12 to 15 inches and slightly to the side, shine the light into the client's pupil.
• D. For optimal visualization, keep the ophthalmoscope at least 3 inches from the client's eye.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During an ophthalmoscopic examination, the client should focus on a distant object behind the examiner to dilate the pupil, and the examiner should stand at a distance of 12-15 inches away and slightly to the side. This angle allows for better visualization of the retina. Holding the ophthalmoscope firmly against the examiner's face and shining the light into the client's pupil helps examine the retina effectively. Choice A is incorrect because the client should look at a distant object, not the examiner's nose. Choice B is incorrect as the ophthalmoscope should be directed towards the client's eye, not the examiner's eye. Choice D is incorrect because keeping the ophthalmoscope at least 3 inches away may not provide an optimal view of the retina.

Similar Questions