HESI RN
HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam
1. What is the priority assessment for a patient receiving intravenous morphine?
- A. Assessing the patient's blood pressure.
- B. Monitoring the patient's respiratory rate.
- C. Checking the patient's pain level.
- D. Monitoring the patient's oxygen saturation.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is monitoring the patient's respiratory rate. When a patient receives intravenous morphine, the priority assessment is to monitor the respiratory rate due to the risk of respiratory depression associated with morphine. This assessment helps in detecting and managing any potential respiratory complications promptly. Assessing blood pressure, checking pain level, and monitoring oxygen saturation are important aspects of patient care but are not the priority when considering the specific risk of respiratory depression with intravenous morphine.
2. The nurse is assessing a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD). Which finding is most important for the nurse to respond to first?
- A. Potassium 6.0 mEq/L.
- B. Daily urine output of 400 ml.
- C. Peripheral neuropathy.
- D. Uremic fetor.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Potassium level of 6.0 mEq/L indicates hyperkalemia, which is a critical electrolyte imbalance in clients with chronic kidney disease. Hyperkalemia can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias, making it the priority finding to address. Choice B, a daily urine output of 400 ml, may indicate decreased kidney function but does not pose an immediate life-threatening risk compared to hyperkalemia. Peripheral neuropathy (Choice C) and uremic fetor (Choice D) are common manifestations of CKD but are not as urgent as addressing a potentially fatal electrolyte imbalance like hyperkalemia.
3. A client who is receiving chemotherapy asks the nurse, 'Why is so much of my hair falling out each day?' Which response by the nurse best explains the reason for alopecia?
- A. 'Chemotherapy affects the cells of the body that grow rapidly, both normal and malignant.'
- B. 'Alopecia is a common side effect you will experience during long-term steroid therapy.'
- C. 'Your hair will grow back completely after your course of chemotherapy is completed.'
- D. 'The chemotherapy causes permanent alterations in your hair follicles that lead to hair loss.'
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Chemotherapy affects the cells of the body that grow rapidly, both normal and malignant.' Chemotherapy targets rapidly dividing cells, which include not only cancer cells but also healthy cells like those in hair follicles. This leads to alopecia (hair loss) as a common side effect. Choice B is incorrect as alopecia is primarily associated with chemotherapy and not long-term steroid therapy. Choice C is incorrect because while hair may grow back after chemotherapy, it may not always be to the same extent or thickness. Choice D is incorrect as chemotherapy-induced hair loss is often temporary and reversible, not permanent alterations in hair follicles.
4. Following the diagnosis of angina pectoris, a client reports being unable to walk up two flights of stairs without pain. Which of the following measures would most likely help the client prevent this problem?
- A. Climb the stairs early in the day.
- B. Rest for at least an hour before climbing the stairs.
- C. Take a nitroglycerin tablet before climbing the stairs.
- D. Lie down after climbing the stairs.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to take a nitroglycerin tablet before climbing the stairs. Nitroglycerin helps prevent angina by dilating the coronary arteries, which increases blood flow to the heart. This medication can help reduce the chest pain and discomfort experienced during physical exertion. Climing the stairs early in the day (Choice A) does not address the underlying issue of inadequate blood flow to the heart. Resting for at least an hour before climbing the stairs (Choice B) may not be as effective in preventing angina as taking nitroglycerin. Lying down after climbing the stairs (Choice D) does not offer a preventive measure for angina; it is more focused on post-activity rest rather than prevention.
5. An 81-year-old male client has emphysema. He lives at home with his cat and manages self-care with no difficulty. When making a home visit, the nurse notices that his tongue is somewhat cracked, and his eyeballs are sunken into his head. What nursing intervention is indicated?
- A. Help the client determine ways to increase his fluid intake.
- B. Obtain an appointment for the client to see a pulmonologist.
- C. Schedule an appointment with a nutritionist to assess the client's diet.
- D. Encourage the client to slightly increase his use of oxygen at night and to always use humidified oxygen.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct nursing intervention in this scenario is to assist the client in finding ways to increase his fluid intake. Clients with COPD, including emphysema, should aim to consume at least three liters of fluids per day to help keep their mucus thin. As the disease progresses, these clients may decrease fluid intake due to various reasons. Suggesting creative methods, such as having disposable fruit juices readily available, can help the client meet this goal. Option B is incorrect as seeing an ear, nose, and throat specialist is not directly related to the client's symptoms. Option C is not the priority in this case, as the main concern is addressing the client's dehydration. Option D does not address the immediate need for managing the client's dehydration and is not the most appropriate intervention at this time.
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