what is the priority assessment for a patient receiving intravenous morphine
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam

1. What is the priority assessment for a patient receiving intravenous morphine?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is monitoring the patient's respiratory rate. When a patient receives intravenous morphine, the priority assessment is to monitor the respiratory rate due to the risk of respiratory depression associated with morphine. This assessment helps in detecting and managing any potential respiratory complications promptly. Assessing blood pressure, checking pain level, and monitoring oxygen saturation are important aspects of patient care but are not the priority when considering the specific risk of respiratory depression with intravenous morphine.

2. During CPR, when attempting to ventilate a client's lungs, the nurse notes that the chest is not moving. What action should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most common reason for inadequate lung aeration during CPR is the incorrect positioning of the head, leading to airway obstruction. Therefore, the initial action should be to reposition the head to open the airway properly and attempt to ventilate again. Using a laryngoscope to check for foreign bodies in the airway (Choice A) is not the first step and could delay crucial interventions. Turning the client to the side and administering back blows (Choice C) is not indicated in this scenario as the focus is on ventilating the lungs. Performing a finger sweep of the mouth (Choice D) is not recommended as it may push obstructions further into the airway during CPR.

3. Which lab result would be most indicative of renal failure?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Elevated creatinine levels. Creatinine is a waste product that is normally filtered by the kidneys. Elevated creatinine levels indicate impaired kidney function, which is commonly seen in renal failure. Choice B, low potassium levels, is not typically associated with renal failure. In fact, renal failure is more likely to cause high potassium levels due to the kidneys' inability to excrete potassium effectively. Choice C, low calcium levels, are not directly indicative of renal failure. Renal failure can lead to disturbances in calcium levels, but low calcium levels alone are not a specific marker for renal failure. Choice D, high sodium levels, are also not typically associated with renal failure. In renal failure, there may be disturbances in sodium levels, but high sodium levels alone are not a direct indicator of renal failure.

4. Which of the following is a common complication of immobility?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, Pressure ulcers. Immobility can lead to pressure ulcers due to prolonged pressure on the skin, especially over bony prominences. Muscle hypertrophy (Choice A) is not a common complication of immobility; instead, muscle atrophy is more likely to occur due to disuse. Bone fractures (Choice C) can result from trauma but are not directly associated with immobility unless there is a fall or accident. Joint stiffness (Choice D) can develop due to lack of movement but is not as common or severe as pressure ulcers in cases of prolonged immobility.

5. A client without a history of respiratory disease has a pulse oximeter in place after surgery. The nurse monitors the pulse oximeter readings to ensure that oxygen saturation remains above:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Pulse oximetry is a noninvasive method of continuously monitoring the oxygen saturation of hemoglobin (SaO2). In the absence of underlying respiratory disease, the expected oxygen saturation level is at least 95%. Oxygen saturation levels below 95% may indicate hypoxemia, which can compromise tissue perfusion and oxygen delivery to vital organs. Therefore, maintaining oxygen saturation above 95% is crucial to ensure adequate oxygenation post-surgery. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they represent oxygen saturation levels that are below the expected value for a client without a history of respiratory disease, which should be at least 95%.

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