HESI RN
HESI 799 RN Exit Exam
1. Which instruction is most important for a client who receives a new plan of care to treat osteoporosis?
- A. Start a weight-bearing exercise plan.
- B. Increase consumption of foods rich in calcium.
- C. Arrange a bone density test every year.
- D. Stay upright after taking the medication.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Stay upright after taking the medication.' This instruction is crucial for clients receiving medications like bisphosphonates to prevent esophageal irritation or erosion. While weight-bearing exercises (choice A) are important for bone health, staying upright after medication intake takes precedence. Increasing calcium-rich foods (choice B) is beneficial but not the most important immediate instruction. Scheduling bone density tests (choice C) is necessary for monitoring osteoporosis but is not as critical as staying upright after medication.
2. When caring for a client with traumatic brain injury (TBI) who had a craniotomy for increased intracranial pressure (ICP), the nurse assesses the client using the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) every two hours. For the past 8 hours, the client's GCS score has been 14. What does this GCS finding indicate about the client?
- A. Neurologically stable without indications of increased ICP.
- B. At risk for neurological deterioration.
- C. Experiencing mild cognitive impairment.
- D. In need of immediate medical intervention.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A GCS score of 14 indicates that the client is neurologically stable without indications of increased ICP. It suggests that the client's neurological status is relatively intact, with only mild impairment, if any. This finding reassures the nurse that there are currently no signs of deterioration or immediate need for intervention. Choice B is incorrect because a GCS score of 14 does not necessarily indicate immediate risk for neurological deterioration. Choice C is incorrect as mild cognitive impairment is not typically inferred from a GCS score of 14. Choice D is incorrect as immediate medical intervention is not warranted based on a GCS score of 14 without other concerning symptoms.
3. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted with an exacerbation. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Administer oxygen therapy as prescribed.
- B. Elevate the head of the bed.
- C. Obtain a sputum culture.
- D. Administer antibiotics as prescribed.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to administer oxygen therapy as prescribed. In COPD exacerbation, the priority is to improve oxygenation. Administering oxygen therapy helps ensure an adequate oxygen supply to the body's tissues. Elevating the head of the bed can improve ventilation but is not the first intervention needed in this situation. Obtaining a sputum culture and administering antibiotics are important in COPD exacerbation but come after ensuring proper oxygenation.
4. A confused, older client with Alzheimer's disease becomes incontinent of urine when attempting to find the bathroom. Which action should the nurse implement?
- A. Assist the client to a bedside commode every two hours
- B. Insert an indwelling catheter
- C. Use adult diapers to manage incontinence
- D. Restrict fluids in the evening
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement is to assist the client to a bedside commode every two hours. This approach, known as scheduled toileting, is essential in managing incontinence in clients with cognitive impairments like Alzheimer's disease. By providing regular assistance to the client to use the commode, the nurse can help maintain continence and reduce accidents. Inserting an indwelling catheter (Choice B) should be avoided if possible to prevent the risk of urinary tract infections. Using adult diapers (Choice C) should be considered a last resort and not the initial intervention. Restricting fluids in the evening (Choice D) is not appropriate as it may lead to dehydration and other complications.
5. An older female client tells the nurse that her muscles have gradually been getting weaker over time. What is the best initial response by the nurse?
- A. Explain that this is an expected occurrence with aging.
- B. Observe the lower extremities for signs of muscle atrophy.
- C. Review the medical record for recent diagnostic test results.
- D. Ask the client to describe the changes that have occurred.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The best initial response by the nurse should be to ask the client to describe the changes that have occurred. This open-ended question allows the nurse to gather valuable information directly from the client, aiding in assessing the situation accurately and formulating an appropriate care plan. Choice A is incorrect as assuming muscle weakness is an expected occurrence with aging without further assessment may overlook potential underlying issues. Choice B is premature as it jumps straight to physical examination without first gathering subjective data. Choice C is unnecessary at this point as reviewing diagnostic test results should come after initial assessment and data collection from the client.
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