HESI RN
HESI 799 RN Exit Exam Quizlet
1. An adult male with schizophrenia who has been noncompliant in taking oral antipsychotic medications refuses a prescribed IM medication. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Notify the healthcare provider of the client's refusal
- B. Attempt to convince the client to take the medication
- C. Administer the medication without the client's consent
- D. Document the refusal and take no further action
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action is to notify the healthcare provider of the client's refusal. It is important for the healthcare provider to be informed so that they can decide on the next steps in the client's treatment, which may involve exploring alternative options or strategies. Attempting to convince the client to take the medication may not be effective, especially if the client is refusing. Administering the medication without the client's consent would violate the client's autonomy and rights. Simply documenting the refusal without further action may not address the client's treatment needs.
2. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value is most concerning?
- A. INR of 3.0
- B. Prothrombin time (PT) of 15 seconds
- C. Hemoglobin of 10 g/dl
- D. White blood cell count
Correct answer: A
Rationale: An INR of 3.0 is most concerning in a client prescribed warfarin (Coumadin) as it indicates a high risk of bleeding, requiring immediate intervention. A high INR value suggests that the blood is taking longer to clot, putting the patient at an increased risk of hemorrhage. Prothrombin time (PT) measures how long it takes for blood to clot, but the specific value of 15 seconds is within the normal range. Hemoglobin of 10 g/dl indicates mild anemia and does not directly relate to the risk of bleeding associated with warfarin therapy. White blood cell count assesses immune function and infection risk, but it is not directly related to the anticoagulant effects of warfarin.
3. A 60-year-old female client with a positive family history of ovarian cancer has developed an abdominal mass and is being evaluated for possible ovarian cancer. Her Papanicolau (Pap) smear results are negative. What information should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?
- A. Further evaluation involving surgery may be needed
- B. A pelvic exam is also needed before cancer is ruled out
- C. Pap smear evaluation should be continued every six months
- D. One additional negative Pap smear in six months is needed
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a 60-year-old female client with a family history of ovarian cancer and an abdominal mass, further evaluation involving surgery may be needed to rule out ovarian cancer. The presence of an abdominal mass raises suspicion for a possible malignancy, and a negative Pap smear result does not rule out ovarian cancer. A pelvic exam alone may not provide sufficient information to confirm or rule out ovarian cancer. Continuing Pap smear evaluations every six months or waiting for one additional negative Pap smear in six months is not appropriate in this scenario, as the abdominal mass requires immediate attention and further evaluation.
4. A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is admitted with hyperkalemia. Which laboratory value is most concerning?
- A. Serum potassium of 6.5 mEq/L
- B. Serum sodium of 135 mEq/L
- C. Serum creatinine of 2.0 mg/dl
- D. Blood glucose of 150 mg/dl
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A serum potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L is concerning in a client with CKD as it indicates hyperkalemia, which requires immediate intervention to prevent cardiac complications. Hyperkalemia can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias, particularly in patients with impaired kidney function. Serum sodium, creatinine, and blood glucose levels, while important, are not as acutely dangerous as severe hyperkalemia in this context.
5. The nurse is administering an IV medication to a client with a history of anaphylaxis. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?
- A. Stay with the client throughout the infusion.
- B. Keep emergency resuscitation equipment at the bedside.
- C. Obtain the client's allergy history.
- D. Ask the client about past allergic reactions to medications.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Keeping emergency resuscitation equipment at the bedside is crucial in case the client experiences anaphylaxis during the infusion. While staying with the client throughout the infusion (Choice A) is important, having immediate access to emergency equipment takes priority in this situation. Obtaining the client's allergy history (Choice C) and asking about past allergic reactions to medications (Choice D) are relevant but do not address the immediate need for emergency intervention in case of anaphylaxis.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access