an adult female client is admitted to the psychiatric unit with a diagnosis of major depressive disorder after starting medication therapy the nurse n
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HESI RN

HESI 799 RN Exit Exam Quizlet

1. An adult female client is admitted to the psychiatric unit with a diagnosis of major depressive disorder. After starting medication therapy, the nurse notices the client has more energy, is giving away her belongings, and has an elevated mood. Which intervention is best for the nurse to implement?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client with major depressive disorder shows signs of increased energy, giving away belongings, and an elevated mood, it could indicate a shift towards suicidal behavior. Therefore, the best intervention for the nurse is to ask the client if she has had any recent thoughts of harming herself. This is crucial to assess the client's risk for suicide and provide necessary interventions. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not address the potential risk of harm to the client and do not prioritize the immediate assessment required in this situation.

2. The nurse observes an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) positioning a newly admitted client who has a seizure disorder. The client is supine, and the UAP is placing soft pillows along the side rails. What action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse should instruct the UAP to pad the side rails with soft blankets instead of pillows. Placing pillows along the side rails could lead to suffocation during a seizure and would need to be removed promptly. Instructing the UAP to use soft blankets is safer as they can help prevent injury without posing a risk of suffocation. Ensuring effective placement of the pillows (Choice A) is not appropriate as pillows should not be used in this situation. Assuming responsibility for placing the pillows (Choice C) or propping the client in a side-lying position with pillows (Choice D) are both unsafe actions and could potentially harm the client.

3. An elderly client seems confused and reports the onset of nausea, dysuria, and urgency with incontinence. Which action should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: This elderly client is presenting symptoms consistent with a urinary tract infection (UTI), such as confusion, nausea, dysuria, urgency, and incontinence. The best course of action for the nurse is to obtain a clean catch mid-stream specimen. This specimen will help identify the causative agent of the UTI, allowing for targeted treatment with an appropriate anti-infective agent. Auscultating for renal bruits (Choice A) is not indicated in this scenario as the client's symptoms point towards a UTI rather than a renal issue. Using a dipstick to measure for urinary ketones (Choice C) is not relevant in the context of UTI symptoms. Beginning to strain the client's urine (Choice D) would not address the need to identify the causative agent for targeted treatment.

4. A male client with hypertension, who received new antihypertensive prescriptions at his last visit, returns to the clinic two weeks later to evaluate his blood pressure (BP). His BP is 158/106, and he admits that he has not been taking the prescribed medication because the drugs make him 'feel bad'. In explaining the need for hypertension control, the nurse should stress that an elevated BP places the client at risk for which pathophysiological condition?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Stroke secondary to hemorrhage.' Uncontrolled hypertension can lead to the weakening of blood vessels in the brain, increasing the risk of a stroke due to hemorrhage. This can result in serious neurological deficits or even death. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because while hypertension can have various complications including vision changes, kidney damage, and heart problems, the most immediate and severe risk associated with uncontrolled hypertension is a stroke from cerebral hemorrhage.

5. An unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) assigned to obtain client vital signs reports to the charge nurse that a client has a weak pulse with a rate of 44 beats/minute. What action should the charge nurse implement?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the charge nurse to implement in this situation is to assign a practical nurse (LPN) to determine if an apical-radial pulse deficit is present. This helps to confirm the accuracy of the reported weak pulse. In this scenario, it is crucial to involve a licensed nurse to further assess the situation and provide a more comprehensive evaluation. Inaccurate pulse readings can lead to inappropriate interventions or unnecessary alarm. Instructing the UAP to count the apical pulse may not address the accuracy issue. Checking capillary refill time is not directly related to confirming the weak pulse rate. Notifying the healthcare provider immediately may be premature without confirming the accuracy of the pulse reading first.

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