HESI RN
HESI 799 RN Exit Exam Quizlet
1. An adult female client is admitted to the psychiatric unit with a diagnosis of major depressive disorder. After starting medication therapy, the nurse notices the client has more energy, is giving away her belongings, and has an elevated mood. Which intervention is best for the nurse to implement?
- A. Support the client by telling her what wonderful progress she is making.
- B. Ask the client if she has had any recent thoughts of harming herself.
- C. Reassure the client that the antidepressant drugs are apparently effective.
- D. Tell the client to keep her belongings because she will need them at discharge.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a client with major depressive disorder shows signs of increased energy, giving away belongings, and an elevated mood, it could indicate a shift towards suicidal behavior. Therefore, the best intervention for the nurse is to ask the client if she has had any recent thoughts of harming herself. This is crucial to assess the client's risk for suicide and provide necessary interventions. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not address the potential risk of harm to the client and do not prioritize the immediate assessment required in this situation.
2. At 0600 while admitting a woman for a scheduled repeat cesarean section (C-Section), the client tells the nurse that she drank a cup of coffee at 0400 because she wanted to avoid getting a headache. Which action should the nurse take first?
- A. Ensure preoperative lab results are available
- B. Start prescribed IV with lactated Ringer's
- C. Inform the anesthesia care provider
- D. Contact the client's obstetrician
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first is to inform the anesthesia care provider. The patient's ingestion of coffee violates the NPO (nothing by mouth) guidelines before surgery, which increases the risk of aspiration during anesthesia. Informing the anesthesia care provider promptly allows for appropriate assessment and decision-making regarding the patient's anesthesia plan. Ensuring preoperative lab results, starting an IV, or contacting the obstetrician can be important steps but addressing the NPO violation and its implications on anesthesia safety take precedence.
3. A client who received multiple antihypertensive medications experiences syncope due to a drop in blood pressure to 70/40. What is the rationale for the nurse's decision to hold the client's scheduled antihypertensive medication?
- A. Increased urinary clearance of the multiple medications has produced diuresis and lowered the blood pressure
- B. The antagonistic interaction among the various blood pressure medications has reduced their effectiveness
- C. The additive effect of multiple medications has caused the blood pressure to drop too low.
- D. The synergistic effect of the multiple medications has resulted in drug toxicity and resulting hypotension.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When medications with a similar action are administered, an additive effect occurs that is the sum of the effects of each medication. In this case, several medications that all lower blood pressure, when administered together, resulted in hypotension.
4. The nurse is assessing a client with chronic heart failure who is receiving furosemide (Lasix). Which assessment finding is most concerning?
- A. Heart rate of 60 beats per minute
- B. Blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg
- C. Elevated liver enzymes
- D. Elevated blood glucose level
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Elevated liver enzymes are most concerning in a client with chronic heart failure as they may indicate liver congestion or worsening heart failure, requiring immediate intervention. Elevated liver enzymes can be a sign of hepatotoxicity or liver damage, which could be a result of furosemide (Lasix) use. Monitoring liver function is crucial in patients taking furosemide due to the risk of hepatotoxicity. A heart rate of 60 beats per minute and a blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg are within normal ranges for a client with chronic heart failure. An elevated blood glucose level may be expected due to the effects of furosemide but is not as immediately concerning as elevated liver enzymes.
5. A female client with type 2 diabetes reports that she has been taking her medications as prescribed but her blood glucose levels remain elevated. Which action should the nurse take first?
- A. Check the client's current blood glucose level.
- B. Assess the client's diet and medication adherence.
- C. Review the client's medication list for potential interactions.
- D. Obtain a hemoglobin A1c level.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take first is to review the client's medication list for potential interactions. This step is crucial as it can help identify any medications that might be contributing to the elevated blood glucose levels. Checking the current blood glucose level (choice A) is important but not the first action to address the ongoing issue. Assessing the client's diet and medication adherence (choice B) is also important, but reviewing the medication list should be the initial step to rule out any drug-related causes. Obtaining a hemoglobin A1c level (choice D) is a valuable assessment but may not address the immediate need to identify potential medication interactions.
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