Nursing Elites

1. In caring for a client receiving the aminoglycoside antibiotic gentamicin, what diagnostic test should the nurse prioritize monitoring?

• A. Urinalysis
• B. Serum creatinine
• C. Serum osmolarity
• D. Liver enzymes

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Serum creatinine. Aminoglycosides, such as gentamicin, are known to cause nephrotoxicity, which can lead to kidney damage. Monitoring serum creatinine levels is crucial in assessing renal function and detecting any potential kidney problems early. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because urinalysis primarily assesses urine composition, serum osmolarity measures the concentration of solutes in the blood, and liver enzymes are not directly impacted by aminoglycoside antibiotics like gentamicin.

2. The nurse is caring for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who is receiving supplemental oxygen. Which finding indicates the need for immediate intervention?

• A. Use of accessory muscles
• B. Oxygen saturation of 94%
• C. Carbon dioxide level of 45 mmHg
• D. Respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A carbon dioxide level of 45 mmHg is concerning in a client with COPD receiving supplemental oxygen, as it may indicate carbon dioxide retention and requires immediate intervention. Options A, B, and D are not the priority findings in this scenario. While the use of accessory muscles, an oxygen saturation of 94%, and a respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute are important to monitor in a client with COPD, they do not indicate an immediate need for intervention like an elevated carbon dioxide level does.

3. The nurse is caring for a client with a tracheostomy who has thick, tenacious secretions. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Encourage fluid intake to thin secretions.
• B. Administer a mucolytic agent.
• C. Increase humidity in the client's room.
• D. Perform deep suctioning as needed.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Increasing humidity in the client's room is the first priority in managing thick, tenacious secretions in a client with a tracheostomy to facilitate airway clearance. This intervention helps to moisten secretions, making them easier to clear. Encouraging fluid intake (Choice A) can be beneficial, but increasing humidity should be addressed first. Administering a mucolytic agent (Choice B) and performing deep suctioning (Choice D) are interventions that can be considered after addressing humidity if necessary, but they are not the initial priority.

4. A 60-year-old female client with a positive family history of ovarian cancer has developed an abdominal mass and is being evaluated for possible ovarian cancer. Her Papanicolau (Pap) smear results are negative. What information should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?

• A. Further evaluation involving surgery may be needed
• B. A pelvic exam is also needed before cancer is ruled out
• C. Pap smear evaluation should be continued every six months
• D. One additional negative Pap smear in six months is needed

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a 60-year-old female client with a family history of ovarian cancer and an abdominal mass, further evaluation involving surgery may be needed to rule out ovarian cancer. The presence of an abdominal mass raises suspicion for a possible malignancy, and a negative Pap smear result does not rule out ovarian cancer. A pelvic exam alone may not provide sufficient information to confirm or rule out ovarian cancer. Continuing Pap smear evaluations every six months or waiting for one additional negative Pap smear in six months is not appropriate in this scenario, as the abdominal mass requires immediate attention and further evaluation.

5. Following a gunshot wound to the abdomen, a young adult male had an emergency bowel resection and received multiple blood products while in the operating room. His current blood pressure is 78/52 mm Hg, he is being mechanically ventilated, and his oxygen saturation is 87%. His laboratory values include hemoglobin 7.0 g/dL, platelets 20,000/mm³, and white blood cells 1,500/mm³. Based on these assessment findings, which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Transfuse packed red blood cells.
• B. Obtain blood and sputum cultures.
• C. Infuse 1000 ml of normal saline.
• D. Titrate oxygen to keep O2 saturation at 90%.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The client is exhibiting signs of severe anemia and hypovolemic shock, indicated by low hemoglobin levels and hypotension. The first priority is to address the low hemoglobin by transfusing packed red blood cells to improve oxygen-carrying capacity and perfusion to vital organs. While obtaining blood and sputum cultures is important for identifying potential infections, infusing normal saline can help with volume expansion but does not address the primary issue of severe anemia. Titrating oxygen to maintain an oxygen saturation of 90% is crucial but should follow the administration of packed red blood cells to optimize oxygen delivery.

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