Nursing Elites

1. A nurse receives a report on a client who is four hours post-total abdominal hysterectomy. The previous nurse reported that it was necessary to change the client's perineal pad hourly and that it is again saturated. The previous nurse also reports that the client's urinary output has decreased. Which action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Measure urinary output
• B. Assess for weakness or dizziness
• C. Increase IV fluids
• D. Check for vaginal bleeding

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Saturation of the perineal pad after a hysterectomy suggests excessive vaginal bleeding, which must be addressed immediately. Assessing for vaginal bleeding is the priority in this situation as it can lead to hypovolemic shock. Measuring urinary output, assessing for weakness or dizziness, and increasing IV fluids are important interventions but checking for vaginal bleeding takes precedence due to the risk of hemorrhage post-hysterectomy.

2. When assessing a recently delivered multigravida client, the nurse finds that her vaginal bleeding is more than expected. Which factor in this client's history is related to this finding?

• A. The client delivered a large baby
• B. She is a gravida 6, para 5
• C. The client had a cesarean delivery
• D. The client had a prolonged labor

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A client with a higher gravida and para count is at greater risk for uterine atony, which can lead to postpartum hemorrhage. The uterus may be less effective at contracting after multiple pregnancies, causing increased vaginal bleeding. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because delivering a large baby, having a cesarean delivery, or experiencing prolonged labor do not directly correlate with an increased risk of postpartum hemorrhage in a multigravida client as compared to the gravida and para count.

3. A client with a urinary tract infection is prescribed ciprofloxacin. What is the most important teaching the nurse should provide?

• A. Take the medication with milk to prevent stomach upset.
• B. Increase fluid intake to 2-3 liters per day.
• C. Avoid taking the medication with dairy products.
• D. Continue taking the medication even if symptoms improve.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Ciprofloxacin can cause crystalluria, so increasing fluid intake to 2-3 liters per day helps flush out the medication and prevent crystal formation in the kidneys. This also ensures adequate hydration, which supports the body's ability to fight the infection. Choice A is incorrect because ciprofloxacin should not be taken with dairy products as they can interfere with the absorption of the medication. Choice D is incorrect because although it's important to complete the full course of antibiotics, it's equally crucial to report any improvement in symptoms to the healthcare provider.

4. What is the expected outcome of prescribing a proton pump inhibitor to a client with a peptic ulcer?

• A. Promote healing of the gastric mucosa.
• B. Neutralize the effects of stomach acid.
• C. Inhibit the growth of Helicobacter pylori.
• D. Reduce gastric acid secretion.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Reduce gastric acid secretion. Proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) work by reducing gastric acid secretion, which helps prevent further irritation of the gastric mucosa and allows ulcers to heal. While promoting healing of the gastric mucosa (Choice A) is an indirect outcome of reducing gastric acid secretion, the primary mechanism of PPIs is to lower acid levels. Choice B, neutralizing the effects of stomach acid, is typically associated with antacids, not PPIs. Inhibiting the growth of Helicobacter pylori (Choice C) is usually achieved with antibiotics, not PPIs.

5. A client with pneumonia is receiving oxygen therapy. What assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Increased oxygen saturation of 96%.
• B. Oxygen saturation of 89%.
• C. Respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute.
• D. Decreased heart rate of 70 beats per minute.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. An oxygen saturation of 89% indicates hypoxemia, which is below the normal range (usually 95-100%). This finding requires immediate intervention as it signifies inadequate oxygenation. Options A, C, and D are within normal limits and do not indicate an urgent need for intervention. Option A indicates a good oxygen saturation level, option C denotes a normal respiratory rate, and option D suggests a normal heart rate. Therefore, these options do not require immediate intervention compared to the critically low oxygen saturation level of 89% in option B.

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