HESI RN
HESI Exit Exam RN Capstone
1. A nurse receives a report on a client who is four hours post-total abdominal hysterectomy. The previous nurse reported that it was necessary to change the client's perineal pad hourly and that it is again saturated. The previous nurse also reports that the client's urinary output has decreased. Which action should the nurse implement first?
- A. Measure urinary output
- B. Assess for weakness or dizziness
- C. Increase IV fluids
- D. Check for vaginal bleeding
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Saturation of the perineal pad after a hysterectomy suggests excessive vaginal bleeding, which must be addressed immediately. Assessing for vaginal bleeding is the priority in this situation as it can lead to hypovolemic shock. Measuring urinary output, assessing for weakness or dizziness, and increasing IV fluids are important interventions but checking for vaginal bleeding takes precedence due to the risk of hemorrhage post-hysterectomy.
2. An adult client with a broken femur reports muscle spasms. What action should the nurse implement while awaiting surgery?
- A. Check the client's most recent electrolyte levels.
- B. Administer a PRN dose of muscle relaxant.
- C. Reduce the weight on the traction device.
- D. Encourage oral fluid intake to relieve muscle tension.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement while awaiting surgery for a client with muscle spasms due to a broken femur is to encourage oral fluid intake to relieve muscle tension. Dehydration can exacerbate muscle spasms, so increasing fluid intake can help alleviate them. Checking electrolyte levels may not directly address muscle spasms in this situation. Administering a muscle relaxant should be based on a healthcare provider's prescription, and traction weight adjustments should only be made by the provider overseeing the client's care.
3. A client undergoing chemotherapy reports extreme fatigue. What should the nurse recommend to manage this symptom?
- A. Increase the dose of chemotherapy.
- B. Rest when needed and maintain a balanced diet.
- C. Perform light physical activity to reduce fatigue.
- D. Consider delaying the chemotherapy treatment.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct recommendation for managing chemotherapy-induced fatigue is to advise the client to rest when needed and maintain a balanced diet. Increasing the dose of chemotherapy (Choice A) would exacerbate the fatigue and other side effects. While light physical activity (Choice C) can be beneficial, extreme fatigue may require more rest initially. Delaying chemotherapy treatment (Choice D) should only be considered after consultation with the healthcare provider, as timely treatment is usually crucial in cancer care.
4. A client is admitted with an epidural hematoma after a skateboarding accident. How should the nurse differentiate the vascular source of intracranial bleeding?
- A. Monitor for clear fluid leakage from the nose.
- B. Assess for rapid onset of decreased level of consciousness.
- C. Check for bruising around the head and neck.
- D. Assess for changes in pupil size and reactivity.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: An epidural hematoma is characterized by a rapid onset of symptoms, including decreased level of consciousness, due to arterial bleeding, which differentiates it from other types of intracranial hemorrhage. Monitoring for clear fluid leakage from the nose (choice A) is more indicative of a basilar skull fracture and cerebrospinal fluid leak. Checking for bruising around the head and neck (choice C) is more suggestive of soft tissue injuries or facial fractures. Assessing for changes in pupil size and reactivity (choice D) is essential in evaluating traumatic brain injuries, but it is not specific to differentiating the vascular source of intracranial bleeding in an epidural hematoma.
5. A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus arrives at the clinic reporting episodes of weakness and palpitations. Which finding should the nurse identify may indicate an emerging situation?
- A. History of hypertension
- B. Fingertips feel numb
- C. Reduced deep tendon reflexes
- D. Elevated fasting blood glucose level
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Numb fingertips may suggest neuropathy, a common complication of diabetes that may indicate a worsening condition. Episodes of weakness and palpitations, combined with neuropathy symptoms, could also suggest hypoglycemia or poor glycemic control, requiring further investigation. The other choices are less likely to be directly related to the client's current symptoms. While a history of hypertension is a common comorbidity in clients with diabetes, it may not directly explain the reported weakness and palpitations. Reduced deep tendon reflexes are more indicative of certain neurological conditions rather than acute emerging situations related to the client's current symptoms. An elevated fasting blood glucose level is expected in a client with type 2 diabetes and may not be the primary indicator of an emerging situation in this context.
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