HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet Capstone
1. A client with hypothyroidism is prescribed levothyroxine. What instruction should the nurse provide?
- A. Take the medication in the morning before eating.
- B. Take the medication with a full glass of water.
- C. Take the medication with food to avoid nausea.
- D. Take the medication only when symptoms worsen.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Take the medication in the morning before eating.' Levothyroxine should be taken on an empty stomach in the morning for optimal absorption. Choice B is incorrect because while taking medication with water is generally recommended, levothyroxine specifically needs to be taken on an empty stomach. Choice C is incorrect as taking levothyroxine with food can interfere with its absorption. Choice D is incorrect as levothyroxine should be taken regularly as prescribed, not only when symptoms worsen.
2. A client who has been prescribed multiple antihypertensive medications experiences syncope and has a blood pressure of 70/40. What is the rationale for the nurse to hold the next scheduled antihypertensive dose?
- A. Increased urinary clearance of the medications has produced diuresis, lowering the blood pressure.
- B. The antagonistic interaction of the medications has reduced their effectiveness.
- C. The synergistic effect of the medications has resulted in drug toxicity, causing hypotension.
- D. The additive effect of the medications has lowered the blood pressure too much.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The additive effect of multiple antihypertensive medications can cause hypotension, leading to dangerously low blood pressure. In this scenario, the client experiencing syncope with a blood pressure of 70/40 indicates severe hypotension, likely due to the combined action of the antihypertensive medications. Holding the next scheduled dose is essential to prevent further lowering of blood pressure and potential complications. Choices A, B, and C provide inaccurate explanations and do not align with the client's presentation and the need to manage hypotension caused by the additive effect of the medications.
3. A client with asthma is prescribed an inhaled corticosteroid. What teaching should the nurse provide?
- A. Rinse the mouth with water after using the inhaler.
- B. Take the medication only during asthma attacks.
- C. Avoid using the inhaler before exercise.
- D. Clean the inhaler with hot water after each use.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct teaching the nurse should provide to a client prescribed an inhaled corticosteroid is to rinse the mouth with water after using the inhaler. This helps prevent oral fungal infections, a common side effect of inhaled corticosteroids. Choice B is incorrect because inhaled corticosteroids are usually used regularly, not just during asthma attacks. Choice C is incorrect as using the inhaler before exercise can actually help prevent exercise-induced bronchospasm. Choice D is incorrect because cleaning the inhaler with hot water after each use is not necessary and may damage the device.
4. A client with a history of stroke is receiving warfarin. What is the nurse's priority assessment?
- A. Check the client's blood pressure.
- B. Assess for signs of bleeding.
- C. Assess the client's neurological status.
- D. Monitor the client's intake and output.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to assess for signs of bleeding. Warfarin is an anticoagulant that increases the risk of bleeding in patients. Monitoring for signs of bleeding such as easy bruising, petechiae, blood in urine or stool, or unusual bleeding from gums is crucial. Checking the client's blood pressure (choice A) is important but not the priority in this situation. Assessing the client's neurological status (choice C) is essential in stroke patients but is not the priority related to warfarin therapy. Monitoring intake and output (choice D) is important for overall assessment but is not the priority when a client is on warfarin, as assessing for bleeding takes precedence.
5. The nurse identifies an electrolyte imbalance, a weight gain of 4.4 lbs in 24 hours, and an elevated central venous pressure for a client with full-thickness burns. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Administer diuretics
- B. Review urine output
- C. Auscultate for irregular heart rate
- D. Increase oral fluid intake
Correct answer: C
Rationale: An elevated CVP and sudden weight gain indicate fluid overload, which can strain the heart. Auscultating for an irregular heart rate is crucial as electrolyte imbalances and fluid shifts after burns can lead to cardiac complications. Monitoring the heart rate is a priority to detect any cardiac distress early. While reviewing urine output and administering diuretics are important interventions, they should come after ensuring the client's cardiac status is stable. Increasing oral fluid intake may exacerbate the fluid overload, making it an inappropriate intervention in this scenario.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access