Nursing Elites

1. A client who has been prescribed multiple antihypertensive medications experiences syncope and has a blood pressure of 70/40. What is the rationale for the nurse to hold the next scheduled antihypertensive dose?

• A. Increased urinary clearance of the medications has produced diuresis, lowering the blood pressure.
• B. The antagonistic interaction of the medications has reduced their effectiveness.
• C. The synergistic effect of the medications has resulted in drug toxicity, causing hypotension.
• D. The additive effect of the medications has lowered the blood pressure too much.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The additive effect of multiple antihypertensive medications can cause hypotension, leading to dangerously low blood pressure. In this scenario, the client experiencing syncope with a blood pressure of 70/40 indicates severe hypotension, likely due to the combined action of the antihypertensive medications. Holding the next scheduled dose is essential to prevent further lowering of blood pressure and potential complications. Choices A, B, and C provide inaccurate explanations and do not align with the client's presentation and the need to manage hypotension caused by the additive effect of the medications.

2. A client with heart failure is receiving furosemide. What assessment finding indicates the medication is effective?

• A. Increased urine output and weight loss.
• B. Increased heart rate and blood pressure.
• C. Decreased edema and improved peripheral pulses.
• D. Decreased shortness of breath and clear lung sounds.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Decreased edema and improved peripheral pulses.' In a client with heart failure, furosemide is a diuretic that helps reduce fluid overload. Therefore, a decrease in edema (swelling due to fluid retention) and improved peripheral pulses (indicating better circulation) are signs that the medication is effective. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Increased urine output and weight loss (Choice A) may indicate the diuretic effect of furosemide but do not specifically reflect its effectiveness in heart failure. Increased heart rate and blood pressure (Choice B) are not desired effects of furosemide and may suggest adverse reactions. Decreased shortness of breath and clear lung sounds (Choice D) are related to improved respiratory status and may not directly reflect the effectiveness of furosemide in addressing fluid overload.

3. A client receiving continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD) has lost weight and exhibits increasing edema. What should the nurse prioritize?

• A. Evaluate the patency of the arteriovenous (AV) graft.
• B. Instruct the client to continue a fluid-restricted diet.
• C. Recommend support stockings for venous return.
• D. Monitor the client's serum albumin levels.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client receiving continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD) who has lost weight and exhibits increasing edema, the nurse should prioritize evaluating the patency of the arteriovenous (AV) graft. This assessment is crucial to determine if hemodialysis can be resumed, addressing the client's presenting issues effectively. Instructing the client to continue a fluid-restricted diet (choice B) may not address the underlying issue related to the CAPD. Recommending support stockings for venous return (choice C) is not directly relevant to the situation described. Monitoring the client's serum albumin levels (choice D) may be important but does not directly address the immediate concern of weight loss and increasing edema in a CAPD client.

4. An adolescent client with meningococcal meningitis is receiving a continuous IV infusion of penicillin G. How many mL/hour should the nurse program the infusion pump to deliver?

• A. 83
• B. 85
• C. 87
• D. 90

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 83. The pharmacy provided the infusion at 10 million units per liter, which requires a rate of 83 mL/hour. To calculate this, multiply the dosage by the volume of the IV solution and divide by the concentration of the IV solution in million units: 10 million units per liter x 8.3 L = 83 mL/hour. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the calculation based on the given information.

5. A client is admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which laboratory result would the nurse expect to find in this client?

• A. pH level of 7.45
• B. Serum calcium of 15 mg/dL
• C. Blood glucose of 450 mg/dL
• D. Sodium level of 120 mEq/L

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Clients with diabetic ketoacidosis typically present with elevated blood glucose levels, often above 300 mg/dL. This high blood glucose level, along with other symptoms, helps confirm the diagnosis of DKA. A pH level of 7.45 would be indicative of alkalosis, not the acidosis seen in DKA. A serum calcium level of 15 mg/dL is significantly elevated and is not a typical finding in DKA. A sodium level of 120 mEq/L indicates hyponatremia, which is not a characteristic laboratory finding in DKA.

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