HESI RN
RN HESI Exit Exam Capstone
1. A client who has been prescribed multiple antihypertensive medications experiences syncope and has a blood pressure of 70/40. What is the rationale for the nurse to hold the next scheduled antihypertensive dose?
- A. Increased urinary clearance of the medications has produced diuresis, lowering the blood pressure.
- B. The antagonistic interaction of the medications has reduced their effectiveness.
- C. The synergistic effect of the medications has resulted in drug toxicity, causing hypotension.
- D. The additive effect of the medications has lowered the blood pressure too much.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The additive effect of multiple antihypertensive medications can cause hypotension, leading to dangerously low blood pressure. In this scenario, the client experiencing syncope with a blood pressure of 70/40 indicates severe hypotension, likely due to the combined action of the antihypertensive medications. Holding the next scheduled dose is essential to prevent further lowering of blood pressure and potential complications. Choices A, B, and C provide inaccurate explanations and do not align with the client's presentation and the need to manage hypotension caused by the additive effect of the medications.
2. A client frequently admitted to the locked psychiatric unit repeatedly compliments and invites one of the nurses to go out on a date. The nurse's response should be to
- A. Ask not to be assigned to this client or to work on another unit
- B. Tell the client that such behavior is inappropriate
- C. Inform the client that hospital policy prohibits staff from dating clients
- D. Discuss the boundaries of the therapeutic relationship with the client
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct response for the nurse in this situation is to discuss the boundaries of the therapeutic relationship with the client. By doing so, the nurse can reinforce professionalism, establish clear boundaries, and prevent ethical conflicts. Option A is incorrect because avoiding the client or unit does not address the issue at hand and may compromise patient care. Option B, while acknowledging the behavior, does not address the underlying reasons and boundaries. Option C, stating hospital policy, is not as therapeutic or client-centered as discussing the therapeutic relationship directly.
3. The nurse prepares a discharge plan for an older adult client following cataract extraction. What instructions should the nurse provide?
- A. Avoid straining, bending, or lifting heavy objects.
- B. Limit exposure to sunlight for the first 2 weeks.
- C. Irrigate the conjunctiva with saline before applying ointment.
- D. Read without direct lighting for 6 weeks.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to provide after cataract extraction is to advise the client to avoid straining, bending, or lifting heavy objects. These activities can increase intraocular pressure, which should be minimized post-surgery to promote healing and prevent complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because limiting sunlight exposure, irrigating the conjunctiva with saline, and reading without direct lighting are not primary instructions following cataract extraction.
4. A woman who is breastfeeding calls her obstetrician’s office and reports increased anxiety since the vaginal delivery of her son three weeks ago. She stopped taking her antianxiety medications but is thinking of restarting them. What response should the nurse provide?
- A. Describe the potential transmission of drugs to the infant through breast milk.
- B. Encourage her to utilize stress-relieving alternatives, such as deep breathing.
- C. Explain that anxiety is a common reaction for mothers of 3-week-old infants.
- D. Inform her that some antianxiety medications are safe to take while breastfeeding.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because some antianxiety medications are considered safe during breastfeeding. The nurse should reassure the client and encourage her to discuss options with her healthcare provider to manage anxiety safely while continuing to breastfeed. Choice A is incorrect because it focuses on the transmission of drugs rather than providing guidance on safe medication use. Choice B, while promoting stress-relieving techniques, does not address the potential need for medication. Choice C is incorrect as it minimizes the woman's reported anxiety, which may require professional intervention.
5. What breakfast selection indicates appropriate dietary management for osteoporosis?
- A. Pancakes with syrup and orange juice
- B. Bagel with jelly and skim milk
- C. Eggs with sausage and whole milk
- D. French toast with butter and syrup
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. A bagel with jelly and skim milk is a calcium-rich and low-fat option that aligns with the dietary recommendations for managing osteoporosis. Osteoporosis is a condition characterized by weak and brittle bones, so it is essential to consume an adequate amount of calcium while avoiding excess fat intake. Choices A, C, and D are not ideal for osteoporosis management as they either lack sufficient calcium, contain high fat content, or both.
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