which breakfast selection indicates that the client understands the nurses instructions about the dietary management of osteoporosis
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI 799 RN Exit Exam

1. Which breakfast selection indicates that the client understands the nurse's instructions about the dietary management of osteoporosis?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, 'Bagel with jelly and skim milk.' This choice includes skim milk, a good source of calcium, which is important for osteoporosis management. It also avoids foods that inhibit calcium absorption. Osteoporosis dietary management emphasizes increased calcium intake and reducing foods that hinder calcium absorption. Choice A only provides proteins but lacks calcium. Choice B offers fruits and a bran muffin, but it lacks a good source of calcium. Choice C has granola but misses a significant source of calcium.

2. A client with a history of chronic kidney disease is scheduled for a CT scan with contrast. Which laboratory value should the nurse review before the procedure?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Before a CT scan with contrast, the nurse should review the serum creatinine level. This is crucial in assessing kidney function because contrast agents can potentially worsen renal function, leading to contrast-induced nephropathy. Monitoring serum creatinine helps in identifying patients at risk and taking necessary precautions. Serum potassium (Choice A) is important in conditions like hyperkalemia but is not the priority before a contrast CT scan. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) (Choice B) is another renal function test but is not as specific as serum creatinine for assessing kidney function. Serum glucose (Choice D) is important in monitoring blood sugar levels, especially in diabetic patients, but it is not directly related to the risk of contrast-induced nephropathy in this scenario.

3. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which clinical finding is most concerning to the nurse?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Serum potassium of 3.2 mEq/L. A low serum potassium level in a client with DKA is concerning due to the risk of cardiac arrhythmias. Kussmaul respirations (choice A) are a compensatory mechanism for metabolic acidosis in DKA. A blood glucose level of 300 mg/dl (choice B) is elevated but expected in DKA. Positive urine ketones (choice D) are a classic finding in DKA and not as concerning as low serum potassium.

4. While performing a skin inspection for a female adult client, the nurse observes a rash that is well circumscribed, has silvery scales and plaques, and is located on the elbows and knees. These assessment findings are likely to indicate which condition?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Psoriasis. Psoriasis commonly presents with well-circumscribed, silvery scales and plaques, typically found on extensor surfaces like elbows and knees. Tinea corporis (A) presents as a circular rash, herpes zoster (B) presents as a painful rash following a dermatomal pattern, and drug reactions (D) have variable presentations not specific to elbows and knees with silvery scales and plaques.

5. The nurse is caring for a client with end-stage renal disease (ESRD) who is scheduled for hemodialysis. Which clinical finding is most concerning?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A fever of 100.4°F is most concerning in a client with ESRD scheduled for hemodialysis because it may indicate an underlying infection that requires immediate attention. Elevated body temperature can be a sign of systemic infection, which can quickly worsen in individuals with compromised renal function. Monitoring for infection is crucial in ESRD patients to prevent complications. Choices A, B, and D are not as immediately concerning in this context. While variations in blood pressure, heart rate, and respiratory rate should be monitored, they are not as indicative of a potentially severe issue as an unexplained fever in this scenario.

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