Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for a client with a history of myocardial infarction who is experiencing chest pain. Which diagnostic test should the nurse anticipate preparing the client for first?

• A. Electrocardiogram (ECG)
• B. Chest X-ray
• C. Arterial blood gases (ABGs)
• D. Echocardiogram

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: An electrocardiogram (ECG) should be performed first to assess for cardiac ischemia in a client with a history of myocardial infarction and chest pain. An ECG provides immediate information about the heart's electrical activity, helping to identify changes indicative of cardiac ischemia or infarction. Chest X-ray (Choice B) is not the initial diagnostic test for assessing chest pain related to myocardial infarction. Arterial blood gases (Choice C) are used to assess oxygenation and acid-base balance but are not the primary diagnostic test for myocardial infarction. An echocardiogram (Choice D) may provide valuable information about cardiac structure and function, but it is not the first-line diagnostic test for acute chest pain in a client with a history of myocardial infarction.

2. The nurse is assessing a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) who is receiving erythropoietin therapy. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Elevated blood pressure
• B. Increased fatigue
• C. Headache
• D. Elevated hemoglobin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Elevated blood pressure. In a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) receiving erythropoietin therapy, elevated blood pressure requires immediate intervention. This finding is concerning as it may indicate worsening hypertension, which can lead to further complications. Increased fatigue (choice B) is common in CKD but may not require immediate intervention unless severe. Headache (choice C) can be a symptom to monitor but does not pose an immediate threat like elevated blood pressure. Elevated hemoglobin (choice D) is actually a desired outcome of erythropoietin therapy and does not require immediate intervention.

3. A client is receiving a full-strength continuous enteral tube feeding at 50 ml/hour and has developed diarrhea. The client has a new prescription to change the feeding to half strength. What intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Add equal amounts of water and feeding to a feeding bag and infuse at 50 ml/hour
• B. Continue the full-strength feeding after decreasing the rate of infusion to 25 ml/hour
• C. Maintain the present feeding until diarrhea subsides and then begin the new prescription
• D. Withhold any further feeding until clarifying the prescription with the healthcare provider

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct intervention is to dilute the formula by adding equal amounts of water and feeding to a feeding bag and infusing it at 50 ml/hour. This can help alleviate the diarrhea that has developed. Diarrhea can occur as a complication of enteral tube feeding and can be due to a variety of causes, including hyperosmolar formula. Choice B is incorrect as continuing the full-strength feeding, even at a lower rate, may not address the issue of diarrhea. Choice C is incorrect because it is important to follow the new prescription to manage the diarrhea effectively. Choice D is incorrect as withholding feeding without taking appropriate action may delay necessary intervention.

4. In a client with heart failure receiving digoxin (Lanoxin) and furosemide (Lasix), which laboratory value requires immediate intervention?

• A. Serum potassium of 4.0 mEq/L
• B. Blood glucose of 200 mg/dl
• C. Serum creatinine of 1.5 mg/dl
• D. Serum potassium of 3.2 mEq/L

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L is low and concerning in a client receiving digoxin and furosemide. Hypokalemia increases the risk of digoxin toxicity, leading to life-threatening arrhythmias. Therefore, immediate intervention is necessary to prevent complications. The other options, serum potassium of 4.0 mEq/L, blood glucose of 200 mg/dl, and serum creatinine of 1.5 mg/dl, are within normal limits and do not pose immediate risks to the client in this scenario.

5. The nurse is preparing a community education program on osteoporosis. Which instruction is helpful in preventing bone loss and promoting bone formation?

• A. Recommend weight-bearing physical activity.
• B. Encourage a diet high in dairy products.
• C. Suggest vitamin D supplementation.
• D. Advise avoiding caffeine and alcohol.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Recommend weight-bearing physical activity. Weight-bearing exercises are effective in maintaining bone density and preventing osteoporosis by promoting bone formation. Encouraging a diet high in dairy products (choice B) can provide calcium, but it's not as directly related to bone formation as physical activity. While vitamin D supplementation (choice C) is important for calcium absorption and bone health, it is not directly involved in promoting bone formation. Advising to avoid caffeine and alcohol (choice D) can be beneficial for bone health, but it is not as directly related to promoting bone formation as weight-bearing physical activity.

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