Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for a client with end-stage renal disease (ESRD) who is scheduled for hemodialysis. Which assessment finding is most concerning?

• A. Blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg
• B. Heart rate of 110 beats per minute
• C. Fever of 100.4°F
• D. Respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A fever of 100.4°F is the most concerning assessment finding in a client with ESRD scheduled for hemodialysis. This elevation in temperature may indicate an underlying infection, which can lead to serious complications in individuals with compromised renal function. Prompt intervention is necessary to prevent the spread of infection and deterioration of the client's condition. The other vital signs mentioned, such as blood pressure, heart rate, and respiratory rate, while important to monitor, are within acceptable ranges and do not pose an immediate threat like a fever indicative of infection.

2. A male client with ulcerative colitis received a prescription for a corticosteroid last month, but because of the side effects, he stopped taking the medication 6 days ago. Which finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. Anxiety and restlessness
• B. Increased bowel movements
• C. Abdominal cramping
• D. Fever and chills

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Anxiety and restlessness. Abruptly stopping corticosteroids can cause adrenal insufficiency, leading to symptoms such as anxiety and restlessness. These symptoms indicate a potential serious complication that requires immediate intervention. Increased bowel movements and abdominal cramping are common side effects of ulcerative colitis and may not warrant immediate intervention. Fever and chills are not typically associated with adrenal insufficiency caused by corticosteroid withdrawal.

3. When planning care for a 10-year-old child with pneumonia receiving oxygen at 5l/min per nasal cannula, what principle of oxygen administration should the nurse consider?

• A. Avoid administration of oxygen at high levels for extended periods.
• B. Increase oxygen flow rate if the child is still tachypneic.
• C. Reduce oxygen levels gradually after symptoms improve.
• D. Humidify the oxygen to prevent drying of mucous membranes.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct principle of oxygen administration to consider is to avoid administering oxygen at high levels for extended periods. High levels of oxygen for prolonged periods can lead to oxygen toxicity, especially in pediatric patients. Increasing the oxygen flow rate based on tachypnea may not be necessary and can potentially lead to oxygen toxicity. Gradually reducing oxygen levels after symptoms improve may compromise the child's oxygenation. While humidifying oxygen is important to prevent drying of mucous membranes, the primary concern in this case is to avoid high oxygen levels for an extended duration to prevent oxygen toxicity.

4. Which needle should the nurse use to administer intravenous fluids (IV) via a client's implanted port?

• A. The one with the clamp and no needle
• B. A butterfly needle
• C. A non-coring (Huber) needle
• D. A standard hypodermic needle

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct needle to use for administering intravenous fluids via an implanted port is a non-coring (Huber) needle. This type of needle is specifically designed to access implanted ports without coring the septum, which helps prevent damage. Choice A, the one with the clamp and no needle, is incorrect as it does not describe a needle suitable for accessing an implanted port. Choice B, a butterfly needle, is not typically used for accessing implanted ports. Choice D, a standard hypodermic needle, is not ideal for accessing ports as it can damage the septum.

5. A client with cirrhosis is admitted with jaundice and ascites. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer a diuretic as prescribed.
• B. Administer lactulose as prescribed.
• C. Monitor the client's weight daily.
• D. Assess the client's neurological status.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering lactulose is the first priority in managing a client with cirrhosis to reduce ammonia levels and prevent worsening hepatic encephalopathy. Lactulose helps in decreasing the absorption of ammonia in the intestines and promotes its excretion through the stool. This intervention is crucial in preventing the development or progression of hepatic encephalopathy. Administering a diuretic (Choice A) may be necessary to manage ascites, but it is not the priority over lactulose in this scenario. Monitoring the client's weight (Choice C) is important to assess fluid retention but is not the first intervention required. Assessing the client's neurological status (Choice D) is essential in cirrhosis, but administering lactulose takes precedence to prevent hepatic encephalopathy.

Similar Questions