HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2023
1. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which assessment finding is most concerning?
- A. INR of 3.5
- B. Prothrombin time (PT) of 15 seconds
- C. Headache
- D. Blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. A headache in a client with a history of atrial fibrillation receiving warfarin (Coumadin) is concerning as it may indicate bleeding, which requires immediate assessment and intervention. Headaches can be a symptom of increased intracranial pressure due to bleeding, especially in patients on anticoagulants. Options A and B are within acceptable ranges for a client on warfarin therapy, indicating that the medication is effectively managing the clotting times. Option D, a blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg, while elevated, is not directly related to the client's condition of atrial fibrillation and warfarin therapy.
2. The nurse is assessing a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who is receiving supplemental oxygen. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Use of accessory muscles
- B. Oxygen saturation of 90%
- C. Respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute
- D. Blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Use of accessory muscles. This finding indicates increased work of breathing in a client with COPD and may signal respiratory failure, requiring immediate intervention. In COPD, the use of accessory muscles suggests that the client is in distress and struggling to breathe effectively. Oxygen saturation of 90% is within an acceptable range for a client with COPD receiving supplemental oxygen and does not require immediate intervention. A respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute is slightly elevated but not a critical finding. A blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg is within the normal range for an adult and does not indicate a need for immediate intervention in this scenario.
3. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with left-sided heart failure. Which laboratory value should be closely monitored?
- A. Serum sodium level
- B. Serum potassium level
- C. Serum creatinine level
- D. Serum glucose level
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In a client with left-sided heart failure, monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial. This helps in assessing kidney function and fluid balance. Elevated potassium levels can result from impaired kidney function, which is common in heart failure. Monitoring sodium levels (choice A) is important in heart failure but not specifically related to left-sided heart failure. Serum creatinine (choice C) reflects kidney function but is not the most critical value to monitor in this case. Serum glucose level (choice D) is important but not the priority when assessing left-sided heart failure.
4. In caring for a client who is receiving linezolid IV for nosocomial pneumonia, which assessment finding is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?
- A. Watery diarrhea
- B. Nausea
- C. Headache
- D. Dizziness
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Watery diarrhea. This finding is the most important to report as it may indicate Clostridioides difficile infection, a severe side effect of antibiotic therapy. Clostridioides difficile infection can lead to serious complications and requires immediate medical attention. Choices B, C, and D are common side effects of linezolid but are not as critical as watery diarrhea in this context.
5. An older female client tells the nurse that her muscles have gradually been getting weaker. What is the best initial response by the nurse?
- A. Explain that this is an expected occurrence with aging.
- B. Observe the lower extremities for signs of muscle atrophy.
- C. Review the medical record for recent diagnostic test results.
- D. Ask the client to describe the changes that have occurred.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The best initial response by the nurse when the client reports muscle weakness is to ask the client to describe the changes that have occurred. This approach allows the nurse to gain a better understanding of the client's experience, the extent of weakness, any associated symptoms, and potential triggers. By actively listening to the client's description, the nurse can gather valuable information that will aid in a comprehensive assessment and development of a tailored care plan. Choice A is incorrect because assuming muscle weakness is solely due to aging without further assessment can lead to overlooking potential underlying causes. Choice B is incorrect as observing for signs of muscle atrophy should come after gathering information directly from the client. Choice C is incorrect as reviewing diagnostic test results should not be the initial step when the client's current experience is being shared.
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