Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which assessment finding is most concerning?

• A. INR of 3.5
• B. Prothrombin time (PT) of 15 seconds
• C. Headache
• D. Blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A headache in a client with a history of atrial fibrillation receiving warfarin (Coumadin) is concerning as it may indicate bleeding, which requires immediate assessment and intervention. Headaches can be a symptom of increased intracranial pressure due to bleeding, especially in patients on anticoagulants. Options A and B are within acceptable ranges for a client on warfarin therapy, indicating that the medication is effectively managing the clotting times. Option D, a blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg, while elevated, is not directly related to the client's condition of atrial fibrillation and warfarin therapy.

2. A client with diabetes mellitus is admitted with a blood glucose level of 600 mg/dl and is unresponsive. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer 50% dextrose IV push
• B. Administer IV fluids as prescribed
• C. Check the client's blood glucose level
• D. Prepare the client for immediate dialysis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering IV fluids as prescribed should be the first intervention for a client with diabetes mellitus admitted with a blood glucose level of 600 mg/dl and unresponsive. This intervention is crucial in managing hyperglycemia by helping to correct dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. Administering 50% dextrose IV push (Choice A) would worsen hyperglycemia in this scenario. Checking the client's blood glucose level (Choice C) is important but not the priority when dealing with an unresponsive client with severe hyperglycemia. Immediate dialysis preparation (Choice D) is not indicated as the first intervention for hyperglycemia.

3. Before preparing a client for the first surgical case of the day, a part-time scrub nurse asks the circulating nurse if a 3-minute surgical hand scrub is adequate preparation for this client. Which response should the circulating nurse provide?

• A. Ask a more experienced nurse to perform that scrub since it is the first time of the day
• B. Validate the nurse is implementing the OR policy for surgical hand scrub
• C. Inform the nurse that hand scrubs should be 3 minutes between cases.
• D. Direct the nurse to continue the surgical hand scrub for a 5-minute duration.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to direct the nurse to continue the surgical hand scrub for a 5-minute duration. Surgical hand scrubs should last for 5 to 10 minutes, ensuring thorough cleaning and disinfection. Choice A is incorrect because the nurse should be guided to complete the scrub properly rather than having someone else do it. Choice B is incorrect as it does not address the duration of the hand scrub. Choice C is incorrect as it suggests a 3-minute hand scrub is sufficient, which is inadequate for proper preparation before surgery.

4. A male client reports the onset of numbness and tingling in his fingers and around his mouth. Which lab test is important for the nurse to review before contacting the healthcare provider?

• A. Capillary glucose
• B. Urine specific gravity
• C. Serum calcium
• D. White blood cell count

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Serum calcium. Numbness and tingling in the fingers and around the mouth are indicative of hypocalcemia. Serum calcium levels should be reviewed as they play a crucial role in diagnosing and managing hypocalcemia. Option A, capillary glucose, is not relevant to the symptoms described. Option B, urine specific gravity, is not typically used to assess numbness and tingling. Option D, white blood cell count, is unrelated to the symptoms presented by the client.

5. When a male Korean-American client looks away when asked by the nurse to describe his problem, what is the best initial nursing action?

• A. Ask for assistance from social services to find a Korean interpreter.
• B. Establish indirect eye contact with the client.
• C. Allow several minutes for the client to respond.
• D. Repeat the question using simpler language.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the best initial nursing action is to allow several minutes for the client to respond. This approach respects the cultural norms of the client, as in some cultures, direct eye contact may be perceived as disrespectful or intrusive. By giving the client time to gather his thoughts and respond at his own pace, the nurse promotes effective communication and demonstrates cultural sensitivity. Asking for assistance from social services to find a Korean interpreter (Choice A) may be necessary for further communication but is not the best initial action. Establishing indirect eye contact (Choice B) may still make the client uncomfortable. Repeating the question using simpler language (Choice D) may not address the underlying cultural aspect affecting the client's response.

Similar Questions