HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet
1. The client with end-stage renal disease (ESRD) is scheduled for hemodialysis. Which laboratory value is most concerning?
- A. Serum potassium of 6.0 mEq/L
- B. Serum creatinine of 2.5 mg/dL
- C. Serum calcium of 8.0 mg/dL
- D. Hemoglobin of 10 g/dL
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A serum potassium level of 6.0 mEq/L is most concerning in a client with ESRD scheduled for hemodialysis as it indicates hyperkalemia, which can lead to serious cardiac complications such as arrhythmias and cardiac arrest. Immediate intervention is required to lower potassium levels. Choice B, serum creatinine of 2.5 mg/dL, is elevated but expected in ESRD due to impaired kidney function. Choice C, serum calcium of 8.0 mg/dL, is within the normal range and not typically a priority in this situation. Choice D, hemoglobin of 10 g/dL, is slightly low but not an immediate concern for a client scheduled for hemodialysis unless significantly lower and causing severe symptoms.
2. Which of the following best describes the nurse's responsibility in obtaining informed consent?
- A. The nurse is responsible for ensuring that the patient understands the procedure and has the opportunity to ask questions.
- B. The nurse should ensure that the patient signs the consent form before the procedure begins.
- C. The nurse is responsible for witnessing the patient sign the consent form and documenting the event.
- D. The nurse should delegate the task of obtaining informed consent to another healthcare provider.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Informed consent is a process where the healthcare provider, in this case, the nurse, ensures that the patient understands the procedure, risks, benefits, and alternatives before they agree to it. The nurse plays a crucial role in facilitating this understanding by explaining the information in a clear and understandable manner and providing the patient with the opportunity to ask questions. Choice B is incorrect because merely obtaining the patient's signature on the consent form does not ensure that the patient truly understands what they are consenting to. Choice C is not fully accurate as the nurse's role goes beyond just witnessing the signature; it involves actively ensuring the patient's comprehension. Choice D is incorrect as the responsibility of obtaining informed consent should not be delegated to another healthcare provider, as it is the nurse's duty to ensure proper communication and understanding with the patient.
3. At 35 weeks gestation, a client complains of 'pain whenever the baby moves.' The nurse notes a temperature of 101.2 F (38.4 C) with severe abdominal or uterine tenderness on palpation. What condition do these findings indicate?
- A. Round ligament strain.
- B. Chorioamnionitis.
- C. Abruptio placentae.
- D. Viral infection.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The client's symptoms of fever and abdominal tenderness, along with the gestational age, are classic signs of chorioamnionitis, an infection of the amniotic fluid. Chorioamnionitis is a serious condition that requires prompt recognition and treatment to prevent maternal and fetal complications. Round ligament strain (Choice A) typically presents with sharp, stabbing pain on the sides of the abdomen and is not associated with fever or uterine tenderness. Abruptio placentae (Choice C) presents with sudden-onset vaginal bleeding and severe abdominal pain, often with a board-like uterus. Viral infections (Choice D) may present with a variety of symptoms, but the combination of fever, abdominal tenderness, and gestational age in this scenario points more towards chorioamnionitis.
4. A 10-year-old is admitted to the orthopedic unit with a diagnosis of slipped femoral capital epiphysis (SFCE). What focus should the nurse include in this child’s plan of care?
- A. Ambulation with a walking cast.
- B. Pin and incision care after surgery.
- C. Use of injections for pain control.
- D. Administration of growth hormone.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In the case of slipped femoral capital epiphysis, surgical intervention is often required. Post-surgery care is crucial to prevent complications such as infection and ensure proper healing. This care includes monitoring and managing pin and incision sites for signs of infection, promoting wound healing, and preventing postoperative complications. The focus on pin and incision care is essential for the child's recovery and overall well-being.
5. A client receiving filgrastim (Neupogen) for neutropenia is learning about compromised host precautions. The selection of which lunch suggests the client has learned about necessary dietary changes?
- A. grilled chicken sandwich and skim milk
- B. roast beef, mashed potatoes, and green beans
- C. peanut butter sandwich, banana, and iced tea
- D. barbecue beef, baked beans, and cole slaw
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Roast beef, mashed potatoes, and green beans are suitable choices for clients with neutropenia because they are considered safe options that help avoid potential sources of infection. Grilled chicken, peanut butter, and barbecue beef may carry a higher risk of bacterial contamination, which could be harmful to a client with compromised immunity.