HESI RN
HESI Fundamentals Practice Exam
1. Which assessment data indicates the need for the nurse to include the problem 'Risk for falls' in a client’s plan of care?
- A. Recent serum hemoglobin level of 16 g/dL
- B. Opioid analgesic received one hour ago
- C. Stooped posture with an unsteady gait
- D. Expressed feelings of depression
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. The administration of opioid analgesics can impair balance and increase the risk of falls, justifying the inclusion of 'Risk for falls' in the client’s care plan. Choice A, a recent serum hemoglobin level of 16 g/dL, is not directly related to the risk of falls. Choice C, stooped posture with an unsteady gait, may indicate a risk for falls, but the direct influence of opioid analgesics on balance is more immediate. Choice D, expressed feelings of depression, while important, is not a direct indicator of the immediate risk for falls associated with opioid analgesic use.
2. The health care provider has changed a client's prescription from the PO to the IV route of administration. The nurse should anticipate which change in the pharmacokinetic properties of the medication?
- A. The client will experience increased tolerance to the drug's effects and may need a higher dose.
- B. The onset of action of the drug will occur more rapidly, resulting in a more rapid effect.
- C. The medication will be more highly protein-bound, increasing the duration of action.
- D. The therapeutic index will be increased, placing the client at greater risk for toxicity.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a medication is administered via the IV route, the absorptive process is bypassed, leading to a more rapid onset of action. This results in a faster effect of the drug. Choice A is incorrect because changing the route of administration does not necessarily lead to increased tolerance or the need for a higher dose. Choice C is incorrect as changing the route of administration does not directly affect the protein binding of a medication. Choice D is incorrect because increasing the therapeutic index would actually reduce the risk of toxicity, not increase it.
3. During the admission assessment of a terminally ill male client, he states that he is an agnostic. What is the best nursing action in response to this statement?
- A. Provide information about the hours and location of the chapel
- B. Document the statement in the client’s spiritual assessment
- C. Invite the client to a healing service for people of all religions
- D. Offer to contact a spiritual advisor of the client’s choice
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Documenting the client's statement in the spiritual assessment is the best nursing action in response to his disclosure of being an agnostic. This respects the client's beliefs and preferences, ensuring that care is tailored to his individual needs. It also demonstrates a commitment to providing holistic and patient-centered care. Providing information about the chapel's hours and location (choice A) may not align with the client's beliefs as an agnostic. Inviting the client to a healing service (choice C) assumes the client's interest in such activities, which may not be the case. Offering to contact a spiritual advisor (choice D) may not be necessary if the client did not express a desire for it.
4. When assessing a client with a nursing diagnosis of fluid volume deficit, the nurse notes that the client's skin over the sternum 'tents' when gently pinched. Which action should the nurse implement?
- A. Confirm the finding by further assessing the client for jugular vein distention.
- B. Offer the client high-protein snacks between regularly scheduled mealtimes.
- C. Continue the planned nursing interventions to restore the client's fluid volume.
- D. Change the plan of care to include interventions for impaired skin integrity.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When the nurse observes that the client's skin over the sternum 'tents' when gently pinched, it is a classic sign of fluid volume deficit. This finding indicates dehydration and the need to restore the client's fluid volume. Therefore, the appropriate action for the nurse is to continue the planned nursing interventions aimed at addressing the fluid deficit. Choice A is incorrect as jugular vein distention is associated with fluid overload, not deficit. Choice B is incorrect as offering high-protein snacks does not directly address the fluid volume deficit. Choice D is incorrect as the priority is to address the fluid deficit before addressing skin integrity issues.
5. The census on the unit is 90 percent, and there are no private rooms available. An elderly client with influenza is admitted. Which of the following rooms would it be appropriate to assign this client?
- A. A double room with a client admitted for impetigo.
- B. A double room with another client with the same diagnosis.
- C. A four-bed room with three clients who have had orthopedic surgery.
- D. A double room with an elderly client with a diagnosis of chickenpox.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a private room is not an option, the best choice is to assign the elderly client with influenza to a double room with another client diagnosed with the same condition. This is ideal as droplet precautions would likely already be in place for the other client, reducing the risk of spreading the infection to other clients in the unit. Choice A is not appropriate as impetigo does not require the same precautions as influenza. Choice C is not ideal as orthopedic surgery does not involve respiratory precautions. Choice D is incorrect because chickenpox requires airborne precautions, which could pose a risk to the elderly client with influenza.
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