which assessment data reflects the need for the nurse to include the problem risk for falls in a clients plan of care
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Fundamentals Practice Exam

1. Which assessment data indicates the need for the nurse to include the problem 'Risk for falls' in a client’s plan of care?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The administration of opioid analgesics can impair balance and increase the risk of falls, justifying the inclusion of 'Risk for falls' in the client’s care plan. Choice A, a recent serum hemoglobin level of 16 g/dL, is not directly related to the risk of falls. Choice C, stooped posture with an unsteady gait, may indicate a risk for falls, but the direct influence of opioid analgesics on balance is more immediate. Choice D, expressed feelings of depression, while important, is not a direct indicator of the immediate risk for falls associated with opioid analgesic use.

2. A client with a diagnosis of coronary artery disease is receiving atorvastatin (Lipitor). Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of this medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To evaluate the effectiveness of atorvastatin (Lipitor), the nurse should monitor liver function tests (LFTs) (C) because this medication can impact liver function. Complete blood count (CBC) (A), serum potassium level (B), and serum cholesterol level (D) are not directly indicative of the medication's effectiveness in managing coronary artery disease.

3. During the assessment, a client receiving a continuous infusion of heparin for deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is found to have a nosebleed. Which finding requires immediate action?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A nosebleed (B) in a client receiving heparin is a sign of heparin toxicity and requires immediate action. It indicates that the client is at risk of excessive bleeding. While a prolonged aPTT of 70 seconds (A) is worth monitoring, active bleeding takes precedence. Elevated blood pressure (C) and lightheadedness (D) are potential side effects of heparin but are not as urgently concerning as active bleeding.

4. A client is 2 days post-op from thoracic surgery and is complaining of incisional pain. The client last received pain medication 2 hours ago. He is rating his pain as a 5 on a 1-10 scale. After calling the provider, what is the nurse's next action?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, since no additional pain medication is available, the nurse should recommend non-pharmacological pain management techniques. Guided imagery and slow rhythmic breathing can help the client manage incisional pain effectively. These techniques can provide distraction and relaxation, potentially reducing the perception of pain without the need for additional medication.

5. An older adult male client is admitted to the medical unit following a fall at home. When undressing him, the nurse notes that he is wearing an adult diaper, and skin breakdown is obvious over his sacral area. What action should the nurse implement first?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The initial step the nurse should take when faced with skin breakdown over the sacral area of the client is to determine the size and depth of the affected area. Assessing and documenting these aspects are crucial before initiating any treatment. This evaluation will guide the nurse in developing an appropriate care plan to address the skin breakdown effectively. Options A, B, and C are not the first steps to take in this situation. While establishing a toileting schedule and completing a functional assessment are important, assessing the size and depth of the skin breakdown is the priority to initiate proper treatment. Applying a barrier ointment without assessing the extent of the breakdown may not address the underlying issue effectively.

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