Nursing Elites

1. Which assessment data indicates the need for the nurse to include the problem 'Risk for falls' in a client’s plan of care?

• A. Recent serum hemoglobin level of 16 g/dL
• B. Opioid analgesic received one hour ago
• C. Stooped posture with an unsteady gait
• D. Expressed feelings of depression

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The administration of opioid analgesics can impair balance and increase the risk of falls, justifying the inclusion of 'Risk for falls' in the client’s care plan. Choice A, a recent serum hemoglobin level of 16 g/dL, is not directly related to the risk of falls. Choice C, stooped posture with an unsteady gait, may indicate a risk for falls, but the direct influence of opioid analgesics on balance is more immediate. Choice D, expressed feelings of depression, while important, is not a direct indicator of the immediate risk for falls associated with opioid analgesic use.

2. A client with a diagnosis of anemia is receiving epoetin alfa (Epogen). Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of this medication?

• A. White blood cell count.
• B. Hemoglobin and hematocrit.
• C. Platelet count.
• D. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To evaluate the effectiveness of epoetin alfa (Epogen) in treating anemia, the nurse should monitor hemoglobin and hematocrit levels. These values indicate the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood, which directly relates to the treatment of anemia. White blood cell count (A), platelet count (C), and blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine (D) are not specific indicators of the effectiveness of epoetin alfa in treating anemia.

3. At 0100 on a male client’s second postoperative night, the client states he is unable to sleep and plans to read until feeling sleepy. What action should the nurse implement?

• A. Leave the room and close the door to the client’s room
• B. Assess the appearance of the client’s surgical dressing
• C. Bring the client a prescribed PRN sedative-hypnotic
• D. Discuss symptoms of sleep deprivation with the client

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The client has expressed a plan to read until feeling sleepy, indicating that he is managing his inability to sleep. In this situation, it is best for the nurse to respect the client's autonomy and leave the room, providing privacy and an opportunity for the client to relax and hopefully fall asleep. Closing the door can also help create a quiet environment conducive to rest.

4. A client has an elevated AST 24 hours following chest pain and shortness of breath. This is suggestive of which of the following?

• A. Gallbladder disease
• B. Liver disease
• C. Myocardial infarction
• D. Skeletal muscle injury

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An elevated AST level following chest pain and shortness of breath is suggestive of myocardial infarction. AST is released from damaged heart muscle cells during a heart attack, indicating cardiac involvement. This enzyme is not specific to liver disease, gallbladder disease, or skeletal muscle injury in this clinical context.

5. When is the first dose of Hepatitis B vaccine typically administered?

• A. In the hospital at birth
• B. At one year old
• C. At six months
• D. At 18 months

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The first dose of the Hepatitis B vaccine is usually administered at birth in the hospital to provide early protection against the virus. Giving the vaccine at birth helps prevent perinatal transmission of Hepatitis B from an infected mother to her newborn. This early administration is crucial in establishing immunity in infants, as delaying the vaccine increases the risk of infection. Options B, C, and D are incorrect because delaying the administration of the Hepatitis B vaccine can leave infants vulnerable to the virus during the critical early months of life when they are most susceptible.

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