Nursing Elites

1. Which assessment data indicates the need for the nurse to include the problem 'Risk for falls' in a client’s plan of care?

• A. Recent serum hemoglobin level of 16 g/dL
• B. Opioid analgesic received one hour ago
• C. Stooped posture with an unsteady gait
• D. Expressed feelings of depression

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The administration of opioid analgesics can impair balance and increase the risk of falls, justifying the inclusion of 'Risk for falls' in the client’s care plan. Choice A, a recent serum hemoglobin level of 16 g/dL, is not directly related to the risk of falls. Choice C, stooped posture with an unsteady gait, may indicate a risk for falls, but the direct influence of opioid analgesics on balance is more immediate. Choice D, expressed feelings of depression, while important, is not a direct indicator of the immediate risk for falls associated with opioid analgesic use.

2. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of fluid volume deficit. Which clinical finding would the nurse expect?

• A. Bounding pulse
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Oliguria
• D. Dry mucous membranes

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Dry mucous membranes (D) are a common clinical finding indicating fluid volume deficit. In dehydration, there is insufficient fluid in the body, leading to dry mucous membranes due to decreased saliva production. Bounding pulse (A) is associated with fluid volume excess, not deficit. Bradycardia (B) and oliguria (C) are not typical clinical findings of fluid volume deficit but may be seen in fluid volume excess or other conditions.

3. A client has a nursing diagnosis of 'spiritual distress.' What intervention is best for the nurse to implement when caring for this client?

• A. Use distraction techniques during times of spiritual stress and crisis.
• B. Reassure the client that their faith will be regained with time and support.
• C. Consult with the staff chaplain and request that the chaplain visit with the client.
• D. Use reflective listening techniques when the client expresses spiritual doubts.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a client is going through spiritual distress, employing reflective listening techniques is crucial. This method allows the client to voice their concerns and emotions, providing them with a supportive environment to explore their feelings. Options A and B do not directly address the client's spiritual distress and may undermine the client's feelings. While option C involves a chaplain, using reflective listening directly involves the nurse in addressing and supporting the client's spiritual concerns.

4. At a motor vehicle collision site, a nurse applies pressure to a groin wound that is bleeding profusely until emergency personnel arrive. Subsequently, the client undergoes leg amputation and sues the nurse for malpractice. What is the most likely outcome of this lawsuit?

• A. The Patient's Bill of Rights protects clients from malicious intents, so the nurse could lose the case.
• B. The lawsuit may be settled out of court, but the nurse's license is unlikely to be revoked.
• C. There will be no judgment against the nurse, as their actions were protected under the Good Samaritan Act.
• D. The client will win because the four elements of negligence (duty, breach, causation, and damages) cannot be proved.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The Good Samaritan Act shields healthcare professionals who act in good faith and offer reasonable care from malpractice claims, irrespective of the client's outcome. In this scenario, the nurse stopping to render aid at the accident scene and applying pressure to the bleeding groin wound would likely be covered by the Good Samaritan Act, protecting the nurse from legal repercussions related to the subsequent leg amputation.

5. How many drops per minute should a client weighing 182 pounds receive if a nurse mixes 50 mg of Nipride in 250 ml of D5W and plans to administer the solution at a rate of 5 mcg/kg/min? The drip factor is 60 gtt/ml.

• A. 31 gtt/min.
• B. 62 gtt/min.
• C. 93 gtt/min.
• D. 124 gtt/min.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To determine the drops per minute for the client, first convert the client's weight from pounds to kilograms: 182/2.2 = 82.73 kg. Calculate the dosage by multiplying 5 mcg by the client's weight in kg: 5 mcg/kg/min × 82.73 kg = 413.65 mcg/min. Find the concentration of the solution in mcg/ml by dividing 250 ml by 50,000 mcg (50 mg): 250 ml/50,000 mcg = 200 mcg/ml. As the client needs 413.65 mcg/min and the solution is 200 mcg/ml, the client should receive 2.07 ml per minute. Finally, using the drip factor of 60 gtt/ml, multiply the ml per minute by the drip factor: 60 gtt/ml × 2.07 ml/min = 124.28 gtt/min, which rounds to 124 gtt/min. Therefore, the client should receive 124 drops per minute. Choice D is the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not reflect the accurate calculation based on the client's weight, dosage, concentration of the solution, and drip factor.

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