Nursing Elites

1. During the insertion of a nasogastric tube (NGT), the client begins to cough and gag. What action should the healthcare professional take?

• A. Stop advancing the tube and allow the client to rest
• B. Remove the tube and try again after a few minutes
• C. Continue inserting the tube while the client sips water
• D. Withdraw the tube slightly and pause before continuing

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a client begins to cough and gag during the insertion of a nasogastric tube, withdrawing the tube slightly and pausing is the appropriate action. This technique helps prevent further irritation, gives the client a moment to recover, and allows for a smoother continuation of the insertion process. Choice A is incorrect because allowing the client to rest without adjusting the tube position might not address the issue. Choice B is incorrect as removing the tube without addressing the cause of coughing and gagging may lead to repeated discomfort. Choice C is incorrect as continuing to insert the tube while the client is experiencing difficulties can increase discomfort and potential complications.

2. During a client assessment, the healthcare provider is evaluating cranial nerve function. Which assessment finding suggests that cranial nerve II is intact?

• A. The client can hear a whisper from 1 to 2 feet away.
• B. The client can identify an object by touch.
• C. The client can shrug the shoulders against resistance.
• D. The client can read a Snellen chart from 20 feet away.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The ability to read a Snellen chart from 20 feet away indicates intact cranial nerve II (optic nerve), responsible for vision. Hearing a whisper (A) is associated with cranial nerve VIII (vestibulocochlear nerve), identifying an object by touch (B) is related to cranial nerves V (trigeminal nerve) and VII (facial nerve), and shoulder shrugging against resistance (C) is a test for cranial nerve XI (accessory nerve). Thus, the correct answer is D as it specifically tests the function of cranial nerve II.

3. The healthcare provider attaches a pulse oximeter to a client's fingers and obtains an oxygen saturation reading of 91%. Which assessment finding most likely contributes to this reading?

• A. BP 142/88 mmHg
• B. 2+ edema of fingers and hands
• C. Radial pulse volume is +3
• D. Capillary refill time is 2 seconds

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Edema in the fingers and hands can impede the proper functioning of the pulse oximeter, leading to a falsely low oxygen saturation reading. Edema alters the transmission of light through the tissues, affecting the accuracy of the measurement. Therefore, the presence of edema in the fingers and hands is the most likely factor contributing to the low oxygen saturation reading of 91%.

4. A client's blood pressure reading is 156/94 mm Hg. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Inform the client that the blood pressure is high and that the reading needs to be verified by another nurse.
• B. Contact the healthcare provider to report the reading and obtain a prescription for an antihypertensive medication.
• C. Replace the cuff with a larger one to ensure a proper fit for the client and increase arm comfort.
• D. Compare the current reading with the client's previously documented blood pressure readings.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first in this situation is to compare the current blood pressure reading with the client's previously documented readings. This comparison will provide valuable information about what is normal for this specific client, helping to determine if the current reading represents a significant change or if it falls within the client's usual range. By reviewing the client's past readings, the nurse can assess trends, variations, and if the current reading is an isolated high value or part of a pattern, guiding appropriate decision-making. Informing the client about the high reading (Choice A) or contacting the healthcare provider for medication (Choice B) should come after assessing the client's history. Replacing the cuff (Choice C) is not necessary at this point and does not address the immediate need to compare the readings for appropriate intervention.

5. The healthcare professional is assessing a client with a diagnosis of peripheral arterial disease (PAD). Which assessment finding is most indicative of this condition?

• A. Dependent rubor.
• B. Absence of hair on the lower legs.
• C. Shiny, thin skin on the legs.
• D. Pain in the legs when walking.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Pain in the legs when walking (D), known as intermittent claudication, is most indicative of peripheral arterial disease (PAD). While dependent rubor (A), absence of hair (B), and shiny, thin skin (C) are also associated with PAD, they are less specific than intermittent claudication. Intermittent claudication is a hallmark symptom of PAD caused by inadequate blood flow to the legs during exercise, resulting in pain that resolves with rest.

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