a client is admitted with a diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis dka which intervention should the nurse implement first
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Fundamentals Practice Exam

1. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering regular insulin IV (A) is the initial intervention for a client with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) to rapidly reduce blood glucose levels. This is vital in reversing the ketosis and acidosis seen in DKA. Administering IV fluids (B) helps to correct dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. Administering sodium bicarbonate (C) and furosemide (D) may be necessary depending on the client's condition, but insulin administration takes precedence in the management of DKA.

2. Why is it most important to start intravenous infusions in the upper extremities rather than the lower extremities of adults?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most critical reason for initiating intravenous infusions in the upper extremities of adults is to reduce the risk of thrombosis (B). Venous return is typically better in the upper extremities, decreasing the likelihood of thrombus formation, which could be life-threatening if dislodged. Although superficial veins are easily found in the feet and ankles (A), this is not the primary reason for choosing the upper extremities. Handling a leg or foot with an IV (C) is not significantly more challenging than handling an arm or hand. The depth of veins in the feet and ankles (D) does not primarily determine the site for IV placement.

3. UAP has lowered the head of the bed to change the linens for a client who is bedbound with a foley catheter and enteral tube feeds. Which change from the client warrants the most immediate intervention by the nurse?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Purulent drainage indicates infection at the insertion site, which requires immediate attention to prevent complications.

4. The healthcare provider obtains a BP reading of 100/88 in the right arm of a client whose blood pressure is typically 120/60 in the same arm. What action should the healthcare provider implement first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The healthcare provider should first retake the blood pressure in the right arm, deflating the cuff slowly, because a low systolic and high diastolic blood pressure measurement is often the result of deflating the cuff too rapidly. Taking the BP in the same arm ensures consistency and accuracy of the measurement.

5. An elderly client with a fractured left hip is on strict bedrest. Which nursing measure is essential to the client's nursing care?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The essential nursing measure for a client with a fractured left hip on strict bedrest is to gently lift the client when moving into a desired position (D). This helps to avoid shearing forces and prevents further injury. Massaging reddened areas (A) should be avoided to prevent skin damage. Active range of motion exercises (B) may be limited due to pain and muscle spasms in the affected leg. The position described in (C) is contraindicated for a client with a fractured left hip as it may cause additional harm.

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