Nursing Elites

1. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer regular insulin IV.
• B. Administer IV fluids at 250 ml/hr.
• C. Administer sodium bicarbonate IV push.
• D. Administer furosemide (Lasix) IV push.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering regular insulin IV (A) is the initial intervention for a client with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) to rapidly reduce blood glucose levels. This is vital in reversing the ketosis and acidosis seen in DKA. Administering IV fluids (B) helps to correct dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. Administering sodium bicarbonate (C) and furosemide (D) may be necessary depending on the client's condition, but insulin administration takes precedence in the management of DKA.

2. In taking a client's history, the nurse asks about the stool characteristics. Which description should the nurse report to the health care provider as soon as possible?

• A. Daily black, sticky stool
• B. Daily dark brown stool
• C. Firm brown stool every other day
• D. Soft light brown stool twice a day

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Daily black, sticky stool. Black sticky stool (melena) is a sign of gastrointestinal bleeding and should be reported to the health care provider promptly. This finding indicates the presence of digested blood in the stool. Choices B, C, and D describe variations of normal stool color and consistency, which do not raise immediate concerns related to gastrointestinal bleeding.

3. Which instruction is most important for the nurse to include when teaching a client with limited mobility strategies to prevent venous thrombosis?

• A. Perform cough and deep breathing exercises hourly.
• B. Turn from side to side in bed at least every 2 hours.
• C. Dorsiflex and plantarflex the feet 10 times each hour.
• D. Drink approximately 4 ounces of water every hour.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most crucial instruction for a client with limited mobility to prevent venous thrombosis is to perform dorsiflexion and plantarflexion of the feet 10 times each hour. These exercises help promote venous return, reducing the risk of thrombosis by preventing blood stasis in the lower extremities. While other measures like turning in bed and staying hydrated are beneficial, promoting venous return through foot exercises is the priority in preventing venous thrombosis in clients with limited mobility. Dorsiflexion and plantarflexion directly target the calf muscle pump, aiding in the circulation of blood back to the heart and preventing clot formation. The other options, such as cough and deep breathing exercises, turning in bed, and hydration, are important for overall health but do not directly address venous stasis and thrombosis prevention in the same way as foot exercises.

4. A male client with unstable angina needs a cardiac catheterization. The healthcare provider explains the risks and benefits of the procedure and then leaves to set up for the procedure. When the nurse presents the consent form for signature, the client hesitates and asks how the wires will keep his heart going. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Answer the client’s specific questions with a short, understandable explanation
• B. Postpone the procedure until the client understands the risks and benefits
• C. Call the client’s next of kin and ask them to provide verbal consent
• D. Page the healthcare provider to return and provide additional explanation

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should ask the healthcare provider to return and provide further explanation to the client. The healthcare provider is the one who can address the risks and benefits of the procedure in detail, ensuring the client receives accurate information before providing consent.

5. During the assessment, a client receiving a continuous infusion of heparin for deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is found to have a nosebleed. Which finding requires immediate action?

• A. The client's activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is 70 seconds.
• B. The client has developed a nosebleed.
• C. The client's blood pressure is 150/90 mm Hg.
• D. The client reports feeling lightheaded.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A nosebleed (B) in a client receiving heparin is a sign of heparin toxicity and requires immediate action. It indicates that the client is at risk of excessive bleeding. While a prolonged aPTT of 70 seconds (A) is worth monitoring, active bleeding takes precedence. Elevated blood pressure (C) and lightheadedness (D) are potential side effects of heparin but are not as urgently concerning as active bleeding.

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