Nursing Elites

1. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer regular insulin IV.
• B. Administer IV fluids at 250 ml/hr.
• C. Administer sodium bicarbonate IV push.
• D. Administer furosemide (Lasix) IV push.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering regular insulin IV (A) is the initial intervention for a client with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) to rapidly reduce blood glucose levels. This is vital in reversing the ketosis and acidosis seen in DKA. Administering IV fluids (B) helps to correct dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. Administering sodium bicarbonate (C) and furosemide (D) may be necessary depending on the client's condition, but insulin administration takes precedence in the management of DKA.

2. A postoperative client has three different PRN analgesics prescribed for varying levels of pain. The nurse inadvertently administers a dose that is not within the prescribed parameters. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Assess for side effects of the medication.
• B. Document the client’s responses.
• C. Complete a medication error report.
• D. Determine if the pain was relieved.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the scenario where a nurse administers a medication outside the prescribed parameters, the immediate action should be to assess the client for any potential side effects of the medication. This is crucial to ensure the client's safety and well-being. By promptly assessing for side effects, the nurse can address any adverse reactions promptly and provide necessary interventions. Once the client's safety is ensured, documenting the client's responses, completing a medication error report, and assessing pain relief can follow as part of the broader response to the medication error. Choice B is not the first priority because the immediate concern is the potential harm from the incorrect dose. Choice C is also important but comes after ensuring the client's safety. Choice D focuses on the outcome rather than the immediate need to address any side effects of the medication.

3. A client has a nursing diagnosis of 'Spiritual distress related to a loss of hope, secondary to impending death.' What intervention is best for the nurse to implement when caring for this client?

• A. Help the client accept the final stage of life.
• B. Assist and support the client in establishing short-term goals.
• C. Encourage the client to make future plans, even if they are unrealistic.
• D. Instruct the client's family to focus on positive aspects of the client's life.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client is experiencing spiritual distress due to a loss of hope related to impending death, it is crucial for the nurse to assist and support the client in establishing short-term goals. This approach helps the client maintain hope and a sense of purpose, as achieving immediate goals can provide a sense of accomplishment and meaning. While acceptance of the final stage of life is important, helping the client set short-term goals is a more immediate and effective intervention in addressing spiritual distress. Encouraging the client to make future plans, especially if they are unrealistic, may not be beneficial as it could lead to further distress if those plans are unattainable. Instructing the client's family to focus on positive aspects of the client's life, though supportive, does not directly address the client's spiritual distress and loss of hope.

4. During the assessment, a client receiving a continuous infusion of heparin for deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is found to have a nosebleed. Which finding requires immediate action?

• A. The client's activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is 70 seconds.
• B. The client has developed a nosebleed.
• C. The client's blood pressure is 150/90 mm Hg.
• D. The client reports feeling lightheaded.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A nosebleed (B) in a client receiving heparin is a sign of heparin toxicity and requires immediate action. It indicates that the client is at risk of excessive bleeding. While a prolonged aPTT of 70 seconds (A) is worth monitoring, active bleeding takes precedence. Elevated blood pressure (C) and lightheadedness (D) are potential side effects of heparin but are not as urgently concerning as active bleeding.

5. When assisting a client with right-sided hemiplegia to get into a wheelchair, how should the nurse position the wheelchair?

• A. On the left side of the bed facing the foot of the bed.
• B. On the right side of the bed facing the head of the bed.
• C. Perpendicular to the bed on the right side.
• D. Facing the bed on the left side of the bed.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Positioning the wheelchair on the left side of the bed facing the foot of the bed is the correct approach when assisting a client with right-sided hemiplegia. Placing the wheelchair on the left side allows the client to stand on their unaffected foot and pivot to sit down safely. This positioning facilitates a smoother transfer and helps maintain the client's stability during the process. Choice B is incorrect because positioning the wheelchair on the right side facing the head of the bed would make it challenging for the client to transfer due to their right-sided hemiplegia. Choice C is incorrect as placing the wheelchair perpendicular to the bed on the right side may not provide the necessary space and angle for a safe transfer. Choice D is incorrect as facing the bed on the left side of the bed does not provide the optimal position for the client to transfer from the bed to the wheelchair effectively.

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