HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet Capstone
1. When taking a health history, which information collected by the nurse correlates most directly to a diagnosis of chronic peripheral arterial insufficiency?
- A. Reports of leg cramping at rest
- B. Family history of heart disease
- C. Current use of beta-blockers
- D. History of intermittent claudication
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Intermittent claudication, or pain in the legs while walking that is relieved by rest, is a classic symptom of peripheral arterial insufficiency. Other factors such as a family history or medication use may contribute to cardiovascular health, but claudication is the most specific indicator. Leg cramping at rest is more indicative of conditions like peripheral neuropathy or deep vein thrombosis. Family history of heart disease and current use of beta-blockers are relevant to overall cardiovascular health, but they are not as directly related to chronic peripheral arterial insufficiency as intermittent claudication.
2. A nurse is reviewing a client's admission laboratory findings that indicate the client has hyponatremia. Which of the following laboratory findings should the nurse expect to be below the expected reference range?
- A. Magnesium
- B. Calcium
- C. Chloride
- D. Potassium
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Chloride. Chloride levels are typically low in cases of hyponatremia, as it often accompanies sodium loss. Magnesium (choice A) is not directly related to hyponatremia. Calcium (choice B) and Potassium (choice D) levels are usually not significantly affected by hyponatremia, making them less likely to be below the expected reference range in this scenario.
3. A mother brings her school-aged daughter to the pediatric clinic for evaluation of her anti-epileptic medication regimen. What information should the nurse provide to the mother?
- A. The medication dose will be tapered over a period of 2 weeks when being discontinued
- B. If seizures return, multiple medications will be prescribed for another 2 years
- C. A dose of valproic acid (Depakote) should be available in the event of status epilepticus
- D. Phenytoin (Dilantin) and phenobarbital (Luminal) should be taken for life
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Antiepileptic drugs should not be abruptly stopped as it may lead to seizure recurrence. Tapering the medication over a period of 2 weeks helps to prevent withdrawal effects and minimize the risk of seizures. Choice B is incorrect because starting multiple medications for seizure recurrence is not the first-line approach. Choice C is incorrect because valproic acid is not the first-line medication given in the event of status epilepticus. Choice D is incorrect because antiepileptic medications are usually evaluated over time and adjusted based on the individual's response; it is not always necessary to take them for life.
4. The nurse is preparing to administer a unit of packed red blood cells (PRBCs) to a client. Which action is most important for the nurse to take?
- A. Verify the client's blood type
- B. Ensure the PRBCs are warm
- C. Check the client's vital signs
- D. Obtain the client's consent
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Verifying the client's blood type is crucial before administering PRBCs to ensure compatibility and prevent transfusion reactions. Checking the client's blood type is essential in blood transfusions. Ensuring the PRBCs are warm is not a priority as the temperature should be within a specific range regardless of the client's preference. Checking the client's vital signs is important but not as crucial as verifying the blood type before a blood transfusion. Obtaining the client's consent is important for any procedure but does not directly impact the safety and success of administering PRBCs.
5. A client is receiving IV antibiotic therapy for sepsis. Which assessment finding indicates that the client's condition is improving?
- A. Urine output increases to 25 mL/hour
- B. Client reports feeling less fatigued
- C. Heart rate decreases from 120 to 110 beats per minute
- D. White blood cell count decreases from 15,000 to 9,000/mm3
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. A decrease in white blood cell count indicates that the infection is responding to treatment, making this the most objective indicator of improvement in a client with sepsis. Choices A, B, and C are subjective indicators and may not always directly correlate with the resolution of the underlying infection. While an increase in urine output, a client reporting feeling less fatigued, and a decrease in heart rate are positive signs, they are not as specific or directly related to the resolution of the infection as a decrease in white blood cell count.