HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2023 Capstone
1. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving supplemental oxygen. The client reports feeling short of breath and has a respiratory rate of 28 breaths per minute. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Increase the oxygen flow rate
- B. Notify the healthcare provider
- C. Administer a bronchodilator
- D. Elevate the head of the bed
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed promotes lung expansion and improves oxygenation, making it the priority intervention for a client with shortness of breath. This position helps in maximizing lung expansion and aiding ventilation-perfusion matching in patients with COPD. Increasing the oxygen flow rate may be necessary but should come after optimizing the client's positioning. Notifying the healthcare provider and administering a bronchodilator are not the initial interventions for addressing shortness of breath in a client with COPD.
2. Which intervention should the nurse include in the care plan for a child with tetanus?
- A. Ensure proper hydration
- B. Administer prescribed antibiotics
- C. Monitor vital signs frequently
- D. Minimize the amount of stimuli in the room
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct intervention for a child with tetanus is to minimize the amount of stimuli in the room. Tetanus causes severe muscle spasms and sensitivity to stimuli, so reducing stimuli like light, sound, and touch can help prevent painful spasms. While ensuring proper hydration and administering antibiotics are essential components of care, minimizing stimuli is crucial for the child's comfort and safety as it directly addresses the symptoms associated with tetanus.
3. A client is receiving external beam radiation to the mediastinum for treatment of bronchial cancer. Which of the following should take priority in planning care?
- A. Esophagitis
- B. Leukopenia
- C. Fatigue
- D. Skin irritation
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Leukopenia. Leukopenia, or a low white blood cell count, is a critical concern in clients undergoing radiation therapy due to the increased risk of infection. While esophagitis, fatigue, and skin irritation are also potential side effects of radiation therapy, leukopenia poses a higher risk as it compromises the body's ability to fight infections effectively.
4. A client with chronic liver disease is prescribed lactulose. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of this medication?
- A. Bilirubin level
- B. Serum ammonia level
- C. Serum potassium level
- D. Albumin level
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Serum ammonia level. Lactulose is used to lower serum ammonia levels in clients with chronic liver disease, particularly in cases of hepatic encephalopathy. Monitoring serum ammonia levels is crucial to evaluate the effectiveness of lactulose in managing hepatic encephalopathy. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they are not directly related to the action or evaluation of lactulose in chronic liver disease.
5. The healthcare provider prescribes a sedative for a client with severe hypothyroidism. What is the best action for the nurse to take?
- A. Affirm the nurse's plan to review the prescription with the provider.
- B. Administer the sedative as prescribed.
- C. Advise the nurse to administer the medication as prescribed.
- D. Offer to administer the medication since the nurse is concerned.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to affirm the nurse's plan to review the prescription with the provider. Sedatives can worsen symptoms of hypothyroidism, so it is crucial to ensure the safety of the prescribed medication. Administering the sedative without further consultation could lead to adverse effects. Simply advising the nurse to administer the medication without addressing the need for review is not the best course of action. Offering to administer the medication without proper assessment or consulting the provider is not appropriate and could potentially harm the client.
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