HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2023 Capstone
1. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving supplemental oxygen. The client reports feeling short of breath and has a respiratory rate of 28 breaths per minute. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Increase the oxygen flow rate
- B. Notify the healthcare provider
- C. Administer a bronchodilator
- D. Elevate the head of the bed
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed promotes lung expansion and improves oxygenation, making it the priority intervention for a client with shortness of breath. This position helps in maximizing lung expansion and aiding ventilation-perfusion matching in patients with COPD. Increasing the oxygen flow rate may be necessary but should come after optimizing the client's positioning. Notifying the healthcare provider and administering a bronchodilator are not the initial interventions for addressing shortness of breath in a client with COPD.
2. A mother brings her 3-week-old infant to the clinic because the baby vomits after eating and always seems hungry. Further assessment indicates that the infant’s vomiting is projectile, and the child seems listless. Which additional assessment finding indicates the possibility of a life-threatening complication?
- A. Irregular palpable pulse
- B. Hyperactive bowel sounds
- C. Underweight for age
- D. Crying without tears
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the infant presenting with vomiting, lethargy, and projectile vomiting indicates a potential serious condition. Crying without tears is a sign of dehydration, a critical condition that can lead to life-threatening complications in infants. Dehydration can rapidly worsen an infant's condition, making prompt intervention crucial to prevent further complications. Irregular palpable pulse (Choice A) could indicate a cardiovascular issue but is less immediately life-threatening in this context. Hyperactive bowel sounds (Choice B) are more indicative of gastrointestinal issues rather than a life-threatening complication. Underweight for age (Choice C) may be concerning for growth-related issues but does not directly indicate a life-threatening complication like dehydration does.
3. A middle-aged adult with a family history of CAD has the following: total cholesterol 198 (11 mmol/L); LDL cholesterol 120 (6.7 mmol/L); HDL cholesterol 58 (3.2 mmol/L); triglycerides 148 (8.2 mmol/L); blood sugar 102 (5.7 mmol/L); and C-reactive protein (CRP) 4.2. The health care provider prescribes a statin medication and aspirin. The client asks the nurse why these medications are needed. Which is the best response by the nurse?
- A. The labs indicate severe hyperlipidemia and the medications will lower your LDL, along with a low-fat diet.
- B. The triglycerides are elevated and will not return to normal without these medications.
- C. The CRP is elevated indicating inflammation seen in cardiovascular disease, which can be lowered by the medications prescribed.
- D. These medications will reduce the risk of type 2 diabetes.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: CRP is a marker of inflammation, which is elevated in cardiovascular disease. Statins and aspirin help lower CRP and reduce the risk of heart attacks and strokes.
4. A client with diabetes mellitus is scheduled for surgery, and their blood glucose level is 280 mg/dL. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Administer insulin as prescribed.
- B. Delay surgery until the blood glucose is below 180 mg/dL.
- C. Check the client’s hemoglobin A1C level.
- D. Administer IV fluids to flush excess glucose.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer insulin as prescribed. In clients with diabetes, high blood glucose levels can increase the risk of infection and impair healing after surgery. Administering insulin as prescribed helps reduce blood glucose to a safer level before surgery, preventing complications. Choice B is incorrect because delaying surgery without addressing the high blood glucose level does not address the immediate issue. Choice C is incorrect as checking the client's hemoglobin A1C level is not the priority when dealing with acute high blood glucose levels before surgery. Choice D is incorrect as administering IV fluids may help with hydration but does not directly address the high blood glucose level that needs immediate attention.
5. A nurse plans care for clients with urinary incontinence. Which client is correctly paired with the appropriate intervention?
- A. A 29-year-old client after a difficult vaginal delivery – Habit training
- B. A 58-year-old postmenopausal client who is not taking estrogen therapy – Electrical stimulation
- C. A 64-year-old female with Alzheimer’s-type senile dementia – Bladder training
- D. A 77-year-old female who has difficulty ambulating – Exercise therapy
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct pairing is a 58-year-old postmenopausal client who is not taking estrogen therapy with electrical stimulation. Electrical stimulation is used for clients with stress incontinence related to menopause and low estrogen levels. Exercise therapy improves pelvic wall strength and is not specifically for ambulation issues. Habit training is more effective for cognitively impaired clients, like those with Alzheimer's-type senile dementia. Bladder training requires the client to be alert, aware, and able to resist the urge to urinate, which may not be suitable for clients with cognitive impairments.