Nursing Elites

1. A client is admitted with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and is receiving heparin therapy. What is the most important laboratory value to monitor during heparin therapy?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT)
• B. International normalized ratio (INR)
• C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• D. Platelet count

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the most important laboratory value to monitor during heparin therapy. It measures the intrinsic pathway of coagulation and is used to assess the effectiveness of heparin as an anticoagulant. Keeping the aPTT within the therapeutic range is crucial to prevent complications such as bleeding or clot formation. Prothrombin time (PT) and International normalized ratio (INR) are used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin. Platelet count is important to assess for thrombocytopenia, a potential side effect of heparin, but it is not the primary laboratory value to monitor the effectiveness of heparin therapy.

2. A client with myasthenia gravis (MG) is receiving immunosuppressive therapy. Recent lab tests show decreased serum magnesium. What nursing action is most important?

• A. Observe rhythm on telemetry monitor.
• B. Check for visual difficulties.
• C. Assess for hip and hand joint pain.
• D. Note the most recent hemoglobin level.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Magnesium plays a crucial role in maintaining normal cardiac rhythms, particularly in patients with cardiac conditions. Abnormal levels can lead to arrhythmias, which is why continuous monitoring of the heart's electrical activity is important. Magnesium's effect on neuromuscular and cardiac function makes it essential to monitor its levels, and any discrepancies can impact treatment decisions. Checking for visual difficulties (choice B) may be important in MG but is not the priority in the context of decreased serum magnesium. Assessing for hip and hand joint pain (choice C) is not directly related to the issue of decreased serum magnesium. Noting the most recent hemoglobin level (choice D) is not the priority in this situation compared to monitoring the cardiac rhythm due to low magnesium levels.

3. A client with anemia is prescribed iron supplements. What teaching should the nurse provide?

• A. Take iron supplements with meals to prevent stomach upset.
• B. Take iron supplements with milk to improve absorption.
• C. Expect black, tarry stools as a side effect of iron supplements.
• D. Take iron supplements with vitamin C to improve absorption.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Take iron supplements with vitamin C to improve absorption. Vitamin C enhances iron uptake, making it more bioavailable for the body. It is essential to avoid taking iron supplements with milk (choice B) as calcium-rich foods can hinder iron absorption. Taking iron supplements with meals (choice A) can help reduce stomach upset, but the optimal way to enhance absorption is with vitamin C. Black, tarry stools (choice C) are not a typical side effect of iron supplements and should be reported to the healthcare provider.

4. After repositioning an immobile client, the nurse observes an area of hyperemia. What action should the nurse take to assess for blanching?

• A. Document the presence in the client’s record.
• B. Apply light pressure over the area.
• C. Apply heat to the area and reassess in 30 minutes.
• D. Apply cold compresses to reduce the redness.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take to assess for blanching in an area of hyperemia is to apply light pressure over the area. Blanching is the temporary whitening of the skin when pressure is applied and then released, indicating that the blood flow is returning to the area. Applying light pressure helps in determining if the hyperemic area blanches, ensuring that blood flow is adequate. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because documenting findings, applying heat, or using cold compresses are not appropriate actions for assessing blanching in an area of hyperemia.

5. An adult client is admitted to the emergency department after falling from a ladder. While waiting to have a CT scan, the client requests something for a severe headache. When the nurse offers a prescribed dose of acetaminophen, the client asks for something stronger. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Administer an anti-inflammatory medication instead
• B. Explain the reason for using only non-narcotics
• C. Consult the healthcare provider about a stronger medication
• D. Administer a stronger medication as requested

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should explain the reason for using only non-narcotics. Following head trauma, non-narcotic medications such as acetaminophen are preferred to avoid masking symptoms of neurological changes, such as increased intracranial pressure, that could worsen after stronger pain medication. Administering an anti-inflammatory medication (Choice A) may not be appropriate as it may not address the severity of the headache. Consulting the healthcare provider about a stronger medication (Choice C) is important, but the immediate need is to educate the client on the rationale for using non-narcotic medications first. Administering a stronger medication as requested (Choice D) could potentially mask important symptoms and should be avoided in this situation.

Similar Questions