HESI RN
HESI 799 RN Exit Exam Capstone
1. A client is admitted with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and is receiving heparin therapy. What is the most important laboratory value to monitor during heparin therapy?
- A. Prothrombin time (PT)
- B. International normalized ratio (INR)
- C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
- D. Platelet count
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the most important laboratory value to monitor during heparin therapy. It measures the intrinsic pathway of coagulation and is used to assess the effectiveness of heparin as an anticoagulant. Keeping the aPTT within the therapeutic range is crucial to prevent complications such as bleeding or clot formation. Prothrombin time (PT) and International normalized ratio (INR) are used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin. Platelet count is important to assess for thrombocytopenia, a potential side effect of heparin, but it is not the primary laboratory value to monitor the effectiveness of heparin therapy.
2. When a male client mentions his foot is hurting while watching TV with his wife, how should the nurse respond?
- A. Ask him to rate his pain on a scale of 1 to 10.
- B. Encourage him to wait until bedtime for the pill to help him sleep.
- C. Attend to an acutely ill client's needs first as the client is laughing.
- D. Instruct him in the use of deep breathing exercises for pain control.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct response is to ask the client to rate his pain on a scale of 1 to 10. This helps the nurse assess the intensity of the pain and determine the appropriate pain medication. Encouraging him to wait or attend to another client's needs first are incorrect because pain management should be addressed promptly. Instructing on deep breathing exercises may be helpful but is not the initial step in addressing acute pain.
3. During a home visit, the nurse observes that a client with limited mobility has difficulty preparing meals. What should the nurse do first?
- A. suggest that the client use a meal delivery service
- B. assist the client in meal planning
- C. refer the client to a dietitian
- D. educate the client on easy-to-prepare healthy meals
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Assisting the client in meal planning is the most appropriate initial action as it addresses the immediate issue of meal preparation. By helping the client plan meals according to their dietary needs and limitations, the nurse can support the client in maintaining a healthy diet despite limited mobility. While suggesting a meal delivery service (Choice A) may be a viable option, assisting in meal planning allows for more personalized and sustainable solutions. Referring the client to a dietitian (Choice C) may be necessary for specialized nutritional advice but is not the first step in addressing the immediate concern. Educating the client on easy-to-prepare healthy meals (Choice D) could be beneficial, but meal planning is a more comprehensive approach to ensure the client's dietary needs are met consistently.
4. A school nurse is planning a program to address bullying among students. Which strategy is most likely to be effective?
- A. Implementing a zero-tolerance policy for bullying
- B. Conducting peer mediation sessions
- C. Providing workshops on conflict resolution
- D. Promoting bystander intervention
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Promoting bystander intervention is the most effective strategy as it empowers students to take action and prevent bullying incidents. By encouraging bystanders to intervene when they witness bullying, the behavior is less likely to continue. Zero-tolerance policies may have limited effectiveness as they often focus on punishment rather than prevention. Peer mediation and conflict resolution workshops are valuable but may not directly address the immediate need for bystander intervention in bullying situations.
5. An antibiotic IM injection for a 2-year-old child is ordered. The total volume of the injection equals 2.0 ml. The correct action is to
- A. administer the medication in 2 separate injections
- B. give the medication in the ventrogluteal site
- C. call to get a smaller volume ordered
- D. check with the pharmacy for a liquid form of the medication
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering the medication in 2 separate injections is the correct action. When the total volume of an injection is relatively large for a specific site, dividing it into smaller volumes and administering them separately is a safer practice to prevent discomfort, tissue damage, or absorption issues. Giving the medication in the ventrogluteal site can be appropriate for IM injections but does not address the issue of the total volume being too high for a single injection. Calling to get a smaller volume ordered may delay treatment and is not necessary when a safe administration method is available. Checking with the pharmacy for a liquid form of the medication does not directly address the issue of the total volume being too high for a single injection, and changing the formulation may not be necessary if the correct administration technique can be applied.