HESI RN
HESI 799 RN Exit Exam Capstone
1. When assessing a recently delivered multigravida client, the nurse finds that her vaginal bleeding is more than expected. Which factor in this client's history is related to this finding?
- A. The client delivered a large baby
- B. She is a gravida 6, para 5
- C. The client had a cesarean delivery
- D. The client had a prolonged labor
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A client with a higher gravida and para count is at greater risk for uterine atony, which can lead to postpartum hemorrhage. The uterus may be less effective at contracting after multiple pregnancies, causing increased vaginal bleeding. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because delivering a large baby, having a cesarean delivery, or experiencing prolonged labor do not directly correlate with an increased risk of postpartum hemorrhage in a multigravida client as compared to the gravida and para count.
2. A client is experiencing acute bronchospasm. What is the nurse's priority intervention?
- A. Administer a nebulizer treatment of albuterol.
- B. Start an IV infusion of normal saline.
- C. Administer oxygen at 4L/min via nasal cannula.
- D. Position the client in a high Fowler's position.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to administer a nebulizer treatment of albuterol. In acute bronchospasm, the priority intervention is to deliver a bronchodilator like albuterol to open the airways and improve breathing. Starting an IV infusion of normal saline (Choice B) may be necessary but not the priority in this situation. Administering oxygen at 4L/min via nasal cannula (Choice C) is important but not the first intervention for bronchospasm. Positioning the client in a high Fowler's position (Choice D) can help with breathing but is not the priority over administering a bronchodilator.
3. A client with heart failure is receiving furosemide. What assessment finding indicates the medication is effective?
- A. Increased urine output and weight loss.
- B. Increased heart rate and blood pressure.
- C. Decreased edema and improved peripheral pulses.
- D. Decreased shortness of breath and clear lung sounds.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Decreased edema and improved peripheral pulses.' In a client with heart failure, furosemide is a diuretic that helps reduce fluid overload. Therefore, a decrease in edema (swelling due to fluid retention) and improved peripheral pulses (indicating better circulation) are signs that the medication is effective. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Increased urine output and weight loss (Choice A) may indicate the diuretic effect of furosemide but do not specifically reflect its effectiveness in heart failure. Increased heart rate and blood pressure (Choice B) are not desired effects of furosemide and may suggest adverse reactions. Decreased shortness of breath and clear lung sounds (Choice D) are related to improved respiratory status and may not directly reflect the effectiveness of furosemide in addressing fluid overload.
4. A client with hypothyroidism is prescribed levothyroxine. What assessment finding suggests the medication is effective?
- A. Improved tolerance to cold.
- B. Decreased fatigue and improved energy levels.
- C. Reduced anxiety and improved mood.
- D. Increased sensitivity to heat.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Decreased fatigue and improved energy levels. Levothyroxine is a medication used to treat hypothyroidism by providing the body with the thyroid hormone it lacks. Therefore, a positive response to the medication would manifest as decreased fatigue and improved energy levels due to the correction of the thyroid hormone imbalance. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because improved tolerance to cold, reduced anxiety, and increased sensitivity to heat are not direct indicators of the effectiveness of levothyroxine in managing hypothyroidism.
5. Which information is a priority for the RN to reinforce to an older client after intravenous pyelography?
- A. Eat a light diet for the remainder of the day
- B. Rest for the next 24 hours as the preparation and the test are tiring
- C. Drink at least 1 8-ounce glass of fluid every waking hour for the next 2 days
- D. Measure the urine output for the next day and promptly notify the healthcare provider if it decreases
Correct answer: D
Rationale: After intravenous pyelography, it is crucial for the client to measure urine output in the next day to monitor for any potential complications, such as kidney issues. Promptly notifying the healthcare provider in case of decreased urine output is essential for timely intervention. While rest and hydration are important post-procedure, monitoring urine output takes precedence due to its direct correlation with potential complications.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access