Nursing Elites

1. When assessing a recently delivered multigravida client, the nurse finds that her vaginal bleeding is more than expected. Which factor in this client's history is related to this finding?

• A. The client delivered a large baby
• B. She is a gravida 6, para 5
• C. The client had a cesarean delivery
• D. The client had a prolonged labor

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A client with a higher gravida and para count is at greater risk for uterine atony, which can lead to postpartum hemorrhage. The uterus may be less effective at contracting after multiple pregnancies, causing increased vaginal bleeding. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because delivering a large baby, having a cesarean delivery, or experiencing prolonged labor do not directly correlate with an increased risk of postpartum hemorrhage in a multigravida client as compared to the gravida and para count.

2. An older adult client with chronic emphysema is admitted with acute onset of weakness, palpitation, and vomiting. Which information is most important for the nurse to obtain during the initial interview?

• A. Medication compliance over the past few weeks.
• B. Recent sleep patterns and rest.
• C. Recent history of smoking.
• D. Activity level prior to symptom onset.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Medication compliance over the past few weeks. In a client with chronic emphysema experiencing acute symptoms, it is crucial to assess medication compliance as it directly impacts symptom control and disease management. Ensuring the client has been adherent to their prescribed medications can provide insights into potential exacerbating factors or the need for adjustments in the treatment plan. Choices B, C, and D are less critical during the initial assessment compared to medication compliance. Recent sleep patterns and rest (choice B) may be relevant but are secondary to ensuring proper medication management. While smoking history (choice C) is important in chronic lung conditions, the immediate focus should be on the current status of medication use. Activity level prior to symptom onset (choice D) is also pertinent but not as crucial as confirming medication compliance to address the acute symptoms.

3. A client is admitted with a large pleural effusion. Which procedure should the nurse prepare the client for?

• A. Thoracentesis.
• B. Endotracheal intubation.
• C. Chest tube insertion.
• D. Bronchoscopy.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: The correct procedure for a client with a large pleural effusion is thoracentesis. Thoracentesis is a diagnostic and therapeutic procedure used to remove fluid from the pleural space, which can help relieve symptoms associated with pleural effusion. Choice B (Endotracheal intubation) is incorrect as it is a procedure to secure the airway by placing a tube into the trachea. Choice C (Chest tube insertion) is incorrect as it is typically done to drain air or fluid from the pleural space over a longer period. Choice D (Bronchoscopy) is incorrect as it is a procedure used to visualize the airways and diagnose lung conditions, not specifically for pleural effusion removal.

4. A client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed a low-potassium diet. Which food should the nurse instruct the client to avoid?

• A. Carrots
• B. White bread
• C. Bananas
• D. Apples

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bananas. Bananas are high in potassium and should be avoided in clients who are on a low-potassium diet due to chronic kidney disease. Foods like apples and white bread are low in potassium and are safer choices. Carrots are also low in potassium and do not need to be avoided in this case.

5. A client admitted with left-sided heart failure presents with shortness of breath and pink frothy sputum. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Decreased breath sounds bilaterally.
• B. Heart rate of 110 bpm and irregular rhythm.
• C. Pink frothy sputum and increased respiratory rate.
• D. Elevated blood pressure and shortness of breath.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Correct Answer: Pink frothy sputum and increased respiratory rate. Pink frothy sputum is a sign of pulmonary edema, indicating fluid in the lungs, a life-threatening condition that requires immediate intervention to prevent respiratory failure. Increased respiratory rate is also concerning as it indicates the body's effort to compensate for the decreased oxygenation. Options A, B, and D are not the most critical findings in this situation. Decreased breath sounds bilaterally may indicate a pneumothorax or atelectasis, heart rate of 110 bpm and irregular rhythm can be managed with medications and further assessment, and elevated blood pressure with shortness of breath is not as urgent as pink frothy sputum and increased respiratory rate.

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