Nursing Elites

1. The charge nurse is planning assignments on a medical unit. Which client should be assigned to the PN?

• A. Test a stool specimen for occult blood
• B. Assist with the ambulation of a client with a chest tube
• C. Irrigate and redress a leg wound
• D. Admit a client from the emergency room

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Irrigating and redressing a leg wound is a common task within the PN's scope of practice, making this assignment appropriate. Tasks like testing stool specimens for occult blood and assisting with ambulation of a client with a chest tube may require a higher level of training and assessment, typically performed by RNs. Admitting a client from the emergency room involves a comprehensive assessment and decision-making process, which is usually within the RN's responsibility.

2. The nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). Which instruction should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Increase fluid intake with meals
• B. Avoid lying down for at least 30 minutes after eating
• C. Eat small, frequent meals throughout the day
• D. Consume spicy foods in moderation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to include in the teaching for a client with GERD is to eat small, frequent meals throughout the day. This recommendation helps reduce symptoms by preventing the stomach from becoming overly full, which can increase pressure on the lower esophageal sphincter and lead to acid reflux. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because increasing fluid intake with meals can exacerbate GERD symptoms, lying down after eating can worsen reflux, and consuming spicy foods can trigger acid reflux in individuals with GERD.

3. A client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving heparin and reports tarry stools. What should the nurse do?

• A. Prepare to administer warfarin.
• B. Assess characteristics of the client's pain.
• C. Monitor stools for blood and review PTT results.
• D. Continue the heparin and prepare to administer Vitamin K.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a client on heparin reports tarry stools, it can be indicative of gastrointestinal bleeding. The correct action for the nurse is to monitor the stools for blood and review the Partial Thromboplastin Time (PTT) results. This is essential to detect any potential bleeding complications associated with heparin therapy. Option A is incorrect because warfarin is not the immediate intervention for tarry stools in a client on heparin. Option B is irrelevant to the situation described. Option D is incorrect as Vitamin K is the antidote for warfarin, not heparin.

4. The mother of a 2-day-old infant girl expresses concern about a 'flea bite' type rash on her daughter's body. The nurse identifies a pink papular rash with vesicles superimposed over the thorax, back, buttocks, and abdomen. Which explanation should the nurse offer?

• A. We need to monitor the rash for signs of worsening or fever
• B. Your baby may have an allergic reaction to laundry detergent
• C. This is a common newborn rash that will resolve after several days
• D. This is likely a bacterial infection requiring antibiotics

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The rash described is typical of erythema toxicum neonatorum, a common and benign newborn rash that resolves on its own within a few days. No treatment is necessary, and the nurse should reassure the mother. Choice A is incorrect as the rash is self-limiting and does not require monitoring for worsening signs or fever. Choice B is incorrect as erythema toxicum neonatorum is not caused by an allergic reaction to laundry detergent. Choice D is incorrect as this rash is not indicative of a bacterial infection that requires antibiotics.

5. A client with cirrhosis develops ascites. What is the nurse’s priority intervention?

• A. Administer diuretics as prescribed.
• B. Restrict fluid intake to manage fluid overload.
• C. Position the client in Fowler’s position and assess for respiratory distress.
• D. Measure the client's abdominal girth daily.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Restrict fluid intake to manage fluid overload. In a client with cirrhosis developing ascites, the priority intervention is to restrict fluid intake. This helps manage fluid overload, prevent further complications, such as respiratory distress or kidney impairment, and reduce the accumulation of ascitic fluid. Administering diuretics may be a part of the treatment plan, but the primary focus should be on fluid restriction. Positioning the client in Fowler’s position and measuring the abdominal girth are important interventions but not the priority when managing ascites in cirrhosis.

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