Nursing Elites

1. A client with a seizure disorder is prescribed phenytoin. What is the most important teaching the nurse should provide?

• A. Take phenytoin with antacids to reduce stomach upset.
• B. Maintain a consistent dosing schedule to prevent seizures.
• C. Monitor for excessive drowsiness and dizziness.
• D. Take the medication at bedtime to reduce seizure risk.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most important teaching the nurse should provide to a client prescribed phenytoin is to maintain a consistent dosing schedule to prevent seizures. Phenytoin is an antiepileptic drug, and missing doses can increase the risk of seizures. Option A is incorrect because antacids can interact with phenytoin and reduce its absorption. Option C is important but not the most critical teaching as compared to maintaining a consistent dosing schedule. Option D is incorrect because the timing of phenytoin administration should be consistent rather than specifically at bedtime.

2. A client with a urinary tract infection is prescribed trimethoprim. What is the most important teaching point?

• A. Take the medication only when symptoms are severe.
• B. Take the medication until symptoms disappear.
• C. Report any pain or burning with urination.
• D. Take the full course of antibiotics, even if symptoms improve.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Take the full course of antibiotics, even if symptoms improve.' It is crucial for clients to complete the full course of antibiotics as prescribed to ensure that the infection is fully eradicated and to prevent the development of antibiotic resistance. Choice A is incorrect because antibiotics should not be reserved for severe symptoms only; they should be taken as prescribed. Choice B is incorrect as stopping the medication once symptoms disappear may lead to a relapse of the infection. Choice C is important but not the most crucial teaching point when compared to completing the full course of antibiotics.

3. A client with Parkinson's disease is prescribed levodopa/carbidopa. The nurse instructs the client to take the medication with meals. Which rationale should the nurse provide for taking the medication with food?

• A. It enhances the effectiveness of the medication
• B. It helps to improve absorption
• C. It prevents orthostatic hypotension
• D. It reduces gastrointestinal upset

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'It reduces gastrointestinal upset.' Levodopa/carbidopa can cause nausea and other gastrointestinal side effects. Taking the medication with food can help reduce these side effects and improve the client's comfort. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because taking the medication with food does not primarily enhance effectiveness, improve absorption, or prevent orthostatic hypotension. The main reason for advising to take the medication with meals is to minimize gastrointestinal upset.

4. A mother reports that she has been applying triple antibiotic ointment for her son's athlete's foot for two days with no improvement. What should the nurse instruct?

• A. Continue using the ointment and keep the area clean.
• B. Stop using the ointment and encourage the feet to be dried completely.
• C. Apply a different antifungal medication instead.
• D. Reapply the ointment twice a day for a longer period.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Antibiotic ointment is ineffective against athlete's foot, which is a fungal infection. The nurse should instruct the mother to stop using the ointment and ensure the feet are dried properly, as moisture exacerbates fungal infections. Applying a different antifungal medication is a valid option, but addressing the moisture issue by drying the feet completely is the immediate priority. Continuing to use the antibiotic ointment or reapplying it for a longer period will not treat the fungal infection effectively.

5. An older client with SIRS has a temperature of 101.8°F, a heart rate of 110 beats per minute, and a respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute. Which additional finding is most important to report to the healthcare provider?

• A. Serum creatinine of 2.0 mg/dL
• B. Elevated WBC count
• C. Blood pressure of 100/60 mmHg
• D. Oxygen saturation of 95%

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A serum creatinine level of 2.0 mg/dL indicates possible acute kidney injury, which can occur during severe systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS). Reporting this value promptly allows for interventions to prevent further renal damage. Elevated WBC count (choice B) is a common feature of SIRS and may not be as urgently indicative of immediate organ damage as high creatinine levels. A blood pressure of 100/60 mmHg (choice C) is relatively low but may be a typical finding in SIRS; however, renal function is critical in this context. Oxygen saturation of 95% (choice D) is within normal limits and is not as concerning as a high creatinine level in this scenario.

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