Nursing Elites

1. A client frequently admitted to the locked psychiatric unit repeatedly compliments and invites one of the nurses to go out on a date. The nurse's response should be to

• A. Ask not to be assigned to this client or to work on another unit
• B. Tell the client that such behavior is inappropriate
• C. Inform the client that hospital policy prohibits staff from dating clients
• D. Discuss the boundaries of the therapeutic relationship with the client

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct response for the nurse in this situation is to discuss the boundaries of the therapeutic relationship with the client. By doing so, the nurse can reinforce professionalism, establish clear boundaries, and prevent ethical conflicts. Option A is incorrect because avoiding the client or unit does not address the issue at hand and may compromise patient care. Option B, while acknowledging the behavior, does not address the underlying reasons and boundaries. Option C, stating hospital policy, is not as therapeutic or client-centered as discussing the therapeutic relationship directly.

2. A male client with hypertension, who received new antihypertensive prescriptions at his last visit returns to the clinic two weeks later to evaluate his blood pressure (BP). His BP is 158/106, and he admits that he has not been taking the prescribed medication because the drugs make him feel bad. In explaining the need for hypertension control, the nurse should stress that an elevated BP places the client at risk for which pathophysiological condition?

• A. Stroke secondary to hemorrhage
• B. Myocardial infarction
• C. Heart failure
• D. Renal failure

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Stroke is a major complication of uncontrolled hypertension. Elevated BP, especially at levels like 158/106, can cause damage to blood vessels in the brain, leading to a hemorrhagic stroke. Controlling BP is essential to prevent such life-threatening events. Myocardial infarction (choice B) is more commonly associated with coronary artery disease, while heart failure (choice C) and renal failure (choice D) can be complications of uncontrolled hypertension but are not directly related to the elevated BP leading to a hemorrhagic stroke.

3. A client receiving IV heparin reports abdominal pain and tarry stools. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Prepare to administer protamine sulfate.
• B. Continue the heparin infusion and notify the healthcare provider.
• C. Monitor the client's vital signs and assess abdominal pain.
• D. Administer a PRN dose of morphine sulfate.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to prepare to administer protamine sulfate. Abdominal pain and tarry stools are indicative of gastrointestinal bleeding, a serious side effect of heparin therapy. Protamine sulfate is the antidote for heparin and is used to reverse its effects in cases of bleeding. Continuing the heparin infusion (Choice B) is not appropriate when the client is experiencing signs of bleeding. Monitoring vital signs and assessing abdominal pain (Choice C) is important but not the priority when immediate action is required to address potential bleeding. Administering morphine sulfate (Choice D) is not the priority in this situation; addressing the underlying cause of bleeding takes precedence.

4. The nurse observes that a client’s wrist restraint is secured to the side rail of the bed. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Ensure that the restraint is snug against the client’s wrist.
• B. Reposition the restraint tie onto the bedframe.
• C. Double knot the restraint to ensure safety.
• D. Leave the restraint in place and notify the healthcare provider.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to reposition the restraint tie onto the bedframe. Restraints should always be secured to the bedframe, not the side rails, to prevent injury to the client in case the bed is adjusted. Choice A is incorrect because the issue is with the attachment point, not the snugness of the restraint. Choice C is incorrect as double knotting the restraint does not address the incorrect attachment point. Choice D is incorrect as the nurse should not leave the restraint in the wrong position; instead, it should be moved to the correct location on the bedframe.

5. Prior to administering warfarin to a client with a history of atrial fibrillation, what lab result should the nurse review?

• A. White blood cell count.
• B. Prothrombin time (PT) and International Normalized Ratio (INR).
• C. Hemoglobin and hematocrit.
• D. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Prothrombin time (PT) and International Normalized Ratio (INR). These lab values are crucial for monitoring the effectiveness of warfarin, an anticoagulant medication. PT measures the time it takes for blood to clot, while INR standardizes these results. Ensuring the client's PT/INR levels are within the therapeutic range is essential to prevent clotting or excessive bleeding. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they are not directly related to monitoring warfarin therapy in a client with atrial fibrillation.

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