Nursing Elites

1. When administering ceftriaxone sodium (Rocephin) intravenously to a client, what finding requires the most immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. Stridor
• B. Nausea
• C. Headache
• D. Pruritus

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Stridor. Stridor is a high-pitched sound that indicates airway obstruction. When administering ceftriaxone sodium (Rocephin) intravenously, if the client develops stridor, it is a medical emergency requiring immediate intervention to maintain a patent airway. Nausea, headache, and pruritus are important to assess, but they do not pose an immediate threat to the client's airway and would not require the same level of urgent intervention as stridor.

2. A client with cirrhosis is admitted with ascites and jaundice. Which assessment finding is most concerning?

• A. Peripheral edema
• B. Confusion and altered mental status
• C. Increased abdominal girth
• D. Yellowing of the skin

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Confusion and altered mental status are concerning signs of hepatic encephalopathy in a client with cirrhosis. Hepatic encephalopathy is a serious complication of liver disease that requires immediate intervention. Peripheral edema may be present due to fluid accumulation, increased abdominal girth can indicate ascites which is common in cirrhosis, and yellowing of the skin is a typical manifestation of jaundice in liver dysfunction, all of which are important but not as immediately concerning as signs of hepatic encephalopathy.

3. When assessing a client with left-sided heart failure, which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer oxygen therapy as prescribed.
• B. Monitor the client's urine output.
• C. Administer a loop diuretic as prescribed.
• D. Administer morphine as prescribed.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering oxygen therapy is the initial intervention for a client with left-sided heart failure. This action is crucial in improving oxygen levels and reducing pulmonary congestion. Monitoring urine output is important for assessing renal function in heart failure, but it is not the priority over ensuring adequate oxygenation. Administering loop diuretics helps manage fluid overload but should come after addressing oxygen needs. Morphine may be indicated for pain or anxiety in some cases, but it is not the primary intervention for left-sided heart failure.

4. A client is admitted for cellulitis surrounding an insect bite on the lower right arm, and intravenous (IV) antibiotic therapy is prescribed. Which action should the nurse implement before performing venipuncture?

• A. Lower the right arm below the level of the heart.
• B. Elevate the right arm on a pillow.
• C. Apply a tourniquet above the insertion site.
• D. Apply a warm compress to the insertion site.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Before performing venipuncture for IV therapy, the nurse should lower the right arm below the level of the heart. Lowering the arm helps dilate the veins, making it easier to locate and access a suitable vein for the procedure. Elevating the arm on a pillow, applying a tourniquet above the insertion site, or applying a warm compress to the insertion site are not appropriate actions before venipuncture as they can affect the venous blood flow and make the procedure more challenging.

5. A female client reports that she drank a liter of a solution to cleanse her intestines but vomited immediately after. How many ml of fluid intake should the nurse document?

• A. 1000 ml
• B. 800 ml
• C. 760 ml
• D. 500 ml

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 760 ml. One liter equals 1000 ml. As the client vomited immediately after drinking, she would have expelled approximately 240 ml (1 cup). Subtracting this from the initial intake of 1000 ml gives us 760 ml as the remaining fluid intake that should be documented. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not reflect the correct calculation of subtracting the amount vomited from the initial intake.

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