when administering ceftriaxone sodium rocephin intravenously to a client what finding requires the most immediate intervention by the nurse
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI 799 RN Exit Exam

1. When administering ceftriaxone sodium (Rocephin) intravenously to a client, what finding requires the most immediate intervention by the nurse?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Stridor. Stridor is a high-pitched sound that indicates airway obstruction. When administering ceftriaxone sodium (Rocephin) intravenously, if the client develops stridor, it is a medical emergency requiring immediate intervention to maintain a patent airway. Nausea, headache, and pruritus are important to assess, but they do not pose an immediate threat to the client's airway and would not require the same level of urgent intervention as stridor.

2. During shift report, the central electrocardiogram (EKG) monitoring system alarms. Which client alarm should the nurse investigate first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Respiratory apnea of 30 seconds. Respiratory apnea indicates a cessation of breathing, which is a life-threatening emergency requiring immediate intervention. Priority should be given to assessing and managing airway, breathing, and circulation. Option B, oxygen saturation rate of 88%, can indicate hypoxemia, but addressing the lack of breathing takes precedence. Option C, eight premature ventricular beats every minute, and option D, a disconnected monitor signal, are important but do not pose an immediate threat to the client's life compared to respiratory apnea.

3. The nurse is caring for a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) who is receiving erythropoietin therapy. Which laboratory value should be closely monitored?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serum potassium level. When a client with chronic kidney disease is receiving erythropoietin therapy, monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial due to the risk of developing hyperkalemia. Erythropoietin can stimulate red blood cell production, leading to an increase in potassium levels. Monitoring potassium helps prevent complications associated with hyperkalemia, such as cardiac arrhythmias. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while hemoglobin levels are relevant in assessing the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy, monitoring potassium levels is more critical in this scenario.

4. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is admitted with a new onset of confusion. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Performing a neurological assessment is the priority in this situation as it helps in evaluating the cause of the new onset of confusion in a client with atrial fibrillation. This assessment will provide crucial information about the client's neurological status, which can guide further interventions. Obtaining a blood glucose level (Choice A) is important but should not be the first step when dealing with a new onset of confusion. Administering an anticoagulant (Choice B) or aspirin (Choice D) may be necessary depending on the underlying cause, but assessing the neurological status comes first to determine the appropriate course of action.

5. A client with chronic liver disease is admitted with ascites and jaundice. Which assessment finding is most concerning?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Confusion and altered mental status are concerning in a client with chronic liver disease, as they may indicate hepatic encephalopathy, a serious complication that requires immediate intervention. Enlarged spleen (choice A) can be a common finding in liver disease due to portal hypertension but may not be as acute as hepatic encephalopathy. Increased abdominal girth (choice B) is typically seen in ascites, which is already present in this client. Yellowing of the skin (choice C) is a manifestation of jaundice, also a known symptom in liver disease but not as acute as confusion and altered mental status.

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