Nursing Elites

1. During orientation, a newly hired nurse demonstrates suctioning of a tracheostomy in a skills class. After the demonstration, the supervising nurse expresses concern that the demonstrated procedure increased the client's risk for which problem?

• A. Infection
• B. Hypoxia
• C. Bleeding
• D. Bronchospasm

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Infection. Improper suctioning techniques can introduce pathogens, increasing the risk of infection. Choice B, Hypoxia, is incorrect as it is more related to inadequate oxygen supply. Choice C, Bleeding, is not typically associated with suctioning a tracheostomy unless done too aggressively. Choice D, Bronchospasm, is not directly linked to suctioning but may occur due to other triggers in patients with sensitive airways.

2. A newly graduated female staff nurse requests reassignment to another client because a male client is asking her for a date and making suggestive comments. Which response is best for the nurse manager to provide?

• A. I have to call the supervisor to get someone else to transfer to this unit to care for him.
• B. I know you are a good nurse and can handle this client in a professional manner.
• C. I'll talk to the client about his behavior and insist that he stop it immediately.
• D. I'll change your assignment, but let's talk about how a nurse should respond to this kind of client.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The best response for the nurse manager to provide in this situation is option D, which involves changing the assignment to address the nurse's immediate concern. It also offers an opportunity to have a conversation with the nurse about how to professionally handle such situations in the future. Option A is not the best response as it does not address the underlying issue and simply shifts the problem to another staff member. Option B, while supportive, does not actively address the client's inappropriate behavior. Option C is not ideal as the nurse manager should handle discussions about inappropriate behavior with clients themselves rather than delegating it to the staff nurse.

3. The nurse plans to administer a scheduled dose of metoprolol (Toprol SR) at 0900 to a client with hypertension. At 0800, the nurse notes that the client's telemetry pattern shows a second-degree heart block with a ventricular rate of 50. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Administer the Toprol immediately and monitor the client until the heart rate increases.
• B. Provide the dose of Toprol as scheduled and assign a UAP to monitor the client's BP q30 minutes.
• C. Give the Toprol as scheduled if the client's systolic blood pressure reading is greater than 180.
• D. Hold the scheduled dose of Toprol and notify the healthcare provider of the telemetry pattern.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In clients with second-degree heart block, beta blockers such as metoprolol (Toprol SR) are contraindicated as they can further decrease the heart rate. Administering metoprolol in this situation can lead to serious complications. The correct action for the nurse to take is to hold the scheduled dose of Toprol and promptly notify the healthcare provider of the telemetry pattern. This ensures patient safety and appropriate management of the cardiac condition. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because administering Toprol despite the heart block can worsen the condition and pose a risk to the client's health.

4. A client with a history of chronic kidney disease (CKD) is receiving erythropoietin therapy. Which assessment finding is most concerning?

• A. Increased fatigue
• B. Headache
• C. Elevated blood pressure
• D. Low urine output

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with chronic kidney disease receiving erythropoietin therapy, elevated blood pressure is the most concerning assessment finding. Erythropoietin can increase red blood cell production, leading to thicker blood, which in turn can elevate blood pressure. Elevated blood pressure in this scenario may indicate worsening hypertension, which requires prompt intervention to prevent complications such as stroke, heart attack, or further kidney damage. Increased fatigue (choice A) is a common symptom in CKD patients and can be expected with erythropoietin therapy. Headache (choice B) can occur but is less concerning than elevated blood pressure in this context. Low urine output (choice D) is a significant finding in CKD, but in a client receiving erythropoietin, elevated blood pressure takes precedence due to its potential for immediate adverse effects.

5. An 80-year-old male client with multiple chronic health problems becomes disoriented, agitated, and combative 24 hours after being admitted to the hospital. What nursing intervention is most important to include in this client's plan of care?

• A. Request a psychiatric consultation for the client.
• B. Reorient the client frequently to time, place, and person.
• C. Administer prescribed antipsychotic medications to reduce agitation.
• D. Obtain an order for a sitter to stay with the client.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Reorienting the client frequently is the most important nursing intervention in this scenario. It helps reduce confusion and agitation, which are common symptoms of acute delirium in hospitalized elderly clients. Requesting a psychiatric consult (choice A) may be necessary if the reorientation does not improve the client's condition or if there are underlying psychiatric concerns, but reorientation should be attempted first. Administering antipsychotic medications (choice C) should not be the initial intervention as they can have adverse effects in elderly individuals. Obtaining a sitter (choice D) may provide support but does not directly address the client's disorientation and agitation.

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