HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam
1. The nurse is teaching a male client with multiple sclerosis how to empty his bladder using the Crede Method. When performing a return demonstration, the client applies pressure to the umbilical areas of his abdomen. What instruction should the nurse provide?
- A. Stroke the inner thigh below the perineum to initiate urinary flow
- B. Contract, hold, and then relax the pubococcygeal muscle
- C. Pour warm water over the external sphincter at the distal glans
- D. Apply downward manual pressure at the suprapubic regions
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The client is applying pressure in the wrong region (umbilical area) and should be instructed to apply pressure at the suprapubic area. Applying downward manual pressure at the suprapubic region helps in emptying the bladder effectively by assisting in pushing the urine out through the urethra. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not address the specific issue of applying pressure to help empty the bladder using the Crede Method.
2. The nurse is caring for a client with a history of myocardial infarction who is experiencing chest pain. Which diagnostic test should the nurse anticipate preparing the client for first?
- A. Electrocardiogram (ECG)
- B. Chest X-ray
- C. Arterial blood gases (ABGs)
- D. Echocardiogram
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: An electrocardiogram (ECG) should be performed first to assess for cardiac ischemia in a client with a history of myocardial infarction and chest pain. An ECG provides immediate information about the heart's electrical activity, helping to identify changes indicative of cardiac ischemia or infarction. Chest X-ray (Choice B) is not the initial diagnostic test for assessing chest pain related to myocardial infarction. Arterial blood gases (Choice C) are used to assess oxygenation and acid-base balance but are not the primary diagnostic test for myocardial infarction. An echocardiogram (Choice D) may provide valuable information about cardiac structure and function, but it is not the first-line diagnostic test for acute chest pain in a client with a history of myocardial infarction.
3. An adult client comes to the clinic and reports his concern over a lump that 'just popped up on my neck about a week ago.' In performing an examination of the lump, the nurse palpates a large, non-tender, hardened left subclavian lymph node. There is no overlying tissue inflammation. What do these findings suggest?
- A. Malignancy
- B. Infection
- C. Benign cyst
- D. Lymphadenitis
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The findings of a large, non-tender, hardened lymph node, especially in the absence of overlying tissue inflammation, are indicative of malignancy. These characteristics raise suspicion for cancer, prompting the need for further investigation. Choice B, Infection, is incorrect because infection would typically present as a tender and possibly swollen lymph node. Choice C, Benign cyst, is incorrect as cysts are usually soft and movable. Choice D, Lymphadenitis, is incorrect as lymphadenitis usually presents with tender and enlarged lymph nodes in response to an infection.
4. During a clinic visit, a client with a kidney transplant asks, 'What will happen if chronic rejection develops?' Which response is best for the nurse to provide?
- A. Dialysis would need to be resumed if chronic rejection becomes a reality.
- B. Immunosuppressive therapy would be intensified.
- C. A second transplant would be scheduled immediately.
- D. We would monitor your kidney function closely.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The best response for the nurse to provide is that dialysis would need to be resumed if chronic rejection becomes a reality. Chronic rejection of a transplanted kidney can lead to kidney failure, necessitating the need for dialysis until another transplant is possible. Choice B is incorrect because although immunosuppressive therapy may be adjusted, the immediate concern is the potential need for dialysis. Choice C is incorrect because scheduling a second transplant immediately is not typically the first step following chronic rejection. Choice D is also incorrect as close monitoring of kidney function is essential but does not address the immediate need for dialysis if chronic rejection occurs.
5. A client with a history of chronic heart failure is admitted with shortness of breath and crackles in the lungs. Which diagnostic test should the nurse anticipate preparing the client for first?
- A. Chest X-ray
- B. Arterial blood gases (ABGs)
- C. Echocardiogram
- D. Electrocardiogram (ECG)
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Echocardiogram. An echocardiogram should be performed first to assess ventricular function and evaluate the cause of shortness of breath and crackles in a client with heart failure. An echocardiogram provides valuable information about the heart's structure and function, helping to identify potential issues related to heart failure. Chest X-ray (Choice A) may be done to assess for changes in heart size or fluid in the lungs but does not directly assess heart function. Arterial blood gases (Choice B) may provide information about oxygenation but do not directly evaluate heart function. An electrocardiogram (Choice D) assesses the heart's electrical activity but does not provide detailed information about ventricular function, which is crucial in heart failure management.
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