Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is teaching a male client with multiple sclerosis how to empty his bladder using the Crede Method. When performing a return demonstration, the client applies pressure to the umbilical areas of his abdomen. What instruction should the nurse provide?

• A. Stroke the inner thigh below the perineum to initiate urinary flow
• B. Contract, hold, and then relax the pubococcygeal muscle
• C. Pour warm water over the external sphincter at the distal glans
• D. Apply downward manual pressure at the suprapubic regions

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The client is applying pressure in the wrong region (umbilical area) and should be instructed to apply pressure at the suprapubic area. Applying downward manual pressure at the suprapubic region helps in emptying the bladder effectively by assisting in pushing the urine out through the urethra. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not address the specific issue of applying pressure to help empty the bladder using the Crede Method.

2. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted with pneumonia. Which assessment finding is most concerning?

• A. Oxygen saturation of 90%
• B. Respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute
• C. Use of accessory muscles
• D. Inspiratory crackles

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Use of accessory muscles.' In a client with COPD and pneumonia, the use of accessory muscles indicates increased work of breathing. This finding is concerning as it may signal respiratory failure, requiring immediate intervention. Oxygen saturation of 90% (choice A) is low but not as immediately concerning as the increased work of breathing. A respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute (choice B) is slightly elevated but not as critical as the use of accessory muscles. Inspiratory crackles (choice D) may be present in pneumonia but are not as indicative of impending respiratory failure as the increased work of breathing shown by the use of accessory muscles.

3. An adult female client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) asks the nurse if she can continue taking her over-the-counter medications. Which medication poses the greatest threat to this client?

• A. Magnesium hydroxide (Maalox).
• B. Birth control pills.
• C. Cough syrup containing codeine.
• D. Cold medication containing alcohol.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Magnesium hydroxide (Maalox). In clients with chronic kidney disease (CKD), magnesium can accumulate to toxic levels as the kidneys are unable to excrete it efficiently. This can lead to hypermagnesemia, causing serious and potentially life-threatening complications. Birth control pills (choice B) are metabolized mainly by the liver and do not pose a significant threat to clients with CKD. Cough syrup containing codeine (choice C) should be used cautiously in CKD due to the risk of respiratory depression but does not pose as great a threat as magnesium accumulation. Cold medication containing alcohol (choice D) should be avoided in CKD but does not present the same level of danger as magnesium toxicity.

4. A client with peptic ulcer disease is being taught about lifestyle modifications by a nurse. Which client statement indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. ‘I should avoid drinking alcohol to prevent irritation of my ulcer.’
• B. ‘I should take my antacids regularly, even if I don’t have symptoms.’
• C. ‘I should avoid eating spicy foods to prevent irritation of my ulcer.’
• D. ‘I should limit my caffeine intake to prevent irritation of my ulcer.’

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The statement ‘I should take my antacids regularly, even if I don’t have symptoms’ indicates a misunderstanding. Antacids should only be taken when symptoms are present to neutralize excess stomach acid. Taking antacids regularly when not experiencing symptoms may lead to metabolic alkalosis. Choices A, C, and D are correct statements for a client with peptic ulcer disease as they all focus on avoiding irritants that can exacerbate the condition.

5. An elderly female client with osteoarthritis reports increasing pain and stiffness in her right knee and asks how to reduce these symptoms. In responding to the client, the nurse recognizes what pathology as the cause of her symptoms?

• A. Destruction of joint cartilage.
• B. Inflammation of synovial membrane.
• C. Formation of bone spurs.
• D. Reduction of joint space.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Osteoarthritis typically involves the destruction of joint cartilage, leading to pain and stiffness. This destruction of joint cartilage results in bone rubbing against bone, causing pain and reduced mobility. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Inflammation of the synovial membrane (choice B) is more commonly associated with rheumatoid arthritis. Formation of bone spurs (choice C) and reduction of joint space (choice D) are manifestations that can occur as a result of osteoarthritis but are not the primary pathology responsible for the symptoms of pain and stiffness.

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