Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is teaching a male client with multiple sclerosis how to empty his bladder using the Crede Method. When performing a return demonstration, the client applies pressure to the umbilical areas of his abdomen. What instruction should the nurse provide?

• A. Stroke the inner thigh below the perineum to initiate urinary flow
• B. Contract, hold, and then relax the pubococcygeal muscle
• C. Pour warm water over the external sphincter at the distal glans
• D. Apply downward manual pressure at the suprapubic regions

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The client is applying pressure in the wrong region (umbilical area) and should be instructed to apply pressure at the suprapubic area. Applying downward manual pressure at the suprapubic region helps in emptying the bladder effectively by assisting in pushing the urine out through the urethra. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not address the specific issue of applying pressure to help empty the bladder using the Crede Method.

2. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?

• A. International Normalized Ratio (INR)
• B. Prothrombin time (PT)
• C. Serum sodium level
• D. Hemoglobin level of 12 g/dl

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: International Normalized Ratio (INR). The INR should be closely monitored in a client receiving warfarin (Coumadin) to assess the effectiveness and safety of anticoagulation therapy. Monitoring the INR helps ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range to prevent both bleeding and clotting events. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while PT is used to monitor warfarin therapy, INR is a more precise indicator of therapeutic levels. Serum sodium level and hemoglobin level are not directly related to monitoring warfarin therapy.

3. A client with a history of diabetes mellitus is admitted with a blood glucose level of 600 mg/dl and is unresponsive. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer 50% dextrose IV push.
• B. Administer insulin as prescribed.
• C. Monitor the client's urine output.
• D. Obtain a blood glucose level.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering 50% dextrose IV push is the first priority in treating a blood glucose level of 600 mg/dl in a client who is unresponsive due to hyperglycemia. This intervention is crucial to rapidly raise the client's blood glucose levels and address the emergency situation. Administering insulin (Choice B) would further lower the blood glucose level, worsening the client's condition. Monitoring urine output (Choice C) and obtaining a blood glucose level (Choice D) are important assessments but are secondary to the immediate need to address the high blood glucose levels causing the client's unresponsiveness.

4. A male client with an antisocial personality disorder is admitted to an inpatient mental health unit for multiple substance dependencies. When providing a history, the client justifies to the nurse his use of illicit drugs. Based on this pattern of behavior, this client's history is most likely to include which finding?

• A. Multiple convictions for misdemeanors and class B felonies.
• B. A history of stable employment
• C. Strong relationships with family members
• D. A pattern of seeking help when needed

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Multiple convictions for misdemeanors and class B felonies. Clients with antisocial personality disorder often engage in behaviors that disregard societal rules and norms, leading to legal issues and criminal activities. This behavior is characteristic of individuals with antisocial personality disorder. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because individuals with this disorder are less likely to have stable employment, strong family relationships, or seek help when needed due to their pattern of defiance and disregard for authority and rules.

5. The nurse is caring for a client with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which laboratory value requires immediate intervention?

• A. Serum glucose of 300 mg/dL
• B. Serum potassium of 4.5 mEq/L
• C. Serum bicarbonate of 15 mEq/L
• D. Serum pH of 7.28

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A serum pH of 7.28 indicates metabolic acidosis in a client with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), requiring immediate intervention. In DKA, the body produces excess ketones, leading to acidosis. Monitoring and correcting the pH level is crucial in managing DKA. Serum glucose levels may be high in DKA, but the immediate concern is correcting the acidosis to prevent complications. Serum potassium and bicarbonate levels are also important but not as immediately critical as correcting the acidosis in DKA.

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