HESI RN
HESI 799 RN Exit Exam
1. The nurse is preparing to administer an enema to a client with severe constipation. Which position is most appropriate for the client?
- A. Supine with the head elevated 30 degrees
- B. Left lateral with the right leg flexed
- C. Sims’ position with the right leg flexed
- D. Prone position with the head turned to the side
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Sims’ position with the right leg flexed is the most appropriate position for administering an enema to a client with severe constipation. This position helps in promoting the flow of the enema solution into the rectum and facilitates the evacuation of stool. Supine position with the head elevated 30 degrees (Choice A) is not ideal for administering an enema as it does not facilitate the flow of the solution. Left lateral position with the right leg flexed (Choice B) is not the best choice for administering an enema. Prone position with the head turned to the side (Choice D) is also not suitable for administering an enema as it does not assist in the proper administration and retention of the solution.
2. An older female client tells the nurse that her muscles have gradually been getting weaker. What is the best initial response by the nurse?
- A. Explain that this is an expected occurrence with aging.
- B. Observe the lower extremities for signs of muscle atrophy.
- C. Review the medical record for recent diagnostic test results.
- D. Ask the client to describe the changes that have occurred.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The best initial response by the nurse when the client reports muscle weakness is to ask the client to describe the changes that have occurred. This approach allows the nurse to gain a better understanding of the client's experience, the extent of weakness, any associated symptoms, and potential triggers. By actively listening to the client's description, the nurse can gather valuable information that will aid in a comprehensive assessment and development of a tailored care plan. Choice A is incorrect because assuming muscle weakness is solely due to aging without further assessment can lead to overlooking potential underlying causes. Choice B is incorrect as observing for signs of muscle atrophy should come after gathering information directly from the client. Choice C is incorrect as reviewing diagnostic test results should not be the initial step when the client's current experience is being shared.
3. Which class of drugs is the only source of a cure for septic shock?
- A. Antihypertensives
- B. Anti-infectives
- C. Antihistamines
- D. Anticholesteremics
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Anti-infectives. Anti-infective agents, such as antibiotics, are essential in treating septic shock as they can eliminate bacteria and halt the progression of the condition by stopping the production of endotoxins. Antihypertensives (Choice A) are used to lower blood pressure, antihistamines (Choice C) are used to treat allergic reactions, and anticholesteremics (Choice D) are used to lower cholesterol levels. However, none of these drug classes directly address the bacterial infection that underlies septic shock.
4. A client with urticaria due to environmental allergies is taking diphenhydramine. Which complaint should the nurse identify as a side effect of the OTC medication?
- A. Nausea and indigestion.
- B. Hypersalivation.
- C. Eyelid and facial twitching.
- D. Increased appetite.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Nausea and indigestion. Diphenhydramine, an antihistamine, commonly causes gastrointestinal side effects such as nausea and indigestion. This medication can have anticholinergic effects, leading to these symptoms. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because hypersalivation, eyelid and facial twitching, and increased appetite are not typically associated with diphenhydramine use.
5. A client is receiving a full-strength continuous enteral tube feeding at 50 ml/hour and has developed diarrhea. The client has a new prescription to change the feeding to half strength. What intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Add equal amounts of water and feeding to a feeding bag and infuse at 50 ml/hour
- B. Continue the full-strength feeding after decreasing the rate of infusion to 25 ml/hour
- C. Maintain the present feeding until diarrhea subsides and then begin the new prescription
- D. Withhold any further feeding until clarifying the prescription with the healthcare provider
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct intervention is to dilute the formula by adding equal amounts of water and feeding to a feeding bag and infusing it at 50 ml/hour. This can help alleviate the diarrhea that has developed. Diarrhea can occur as a complication of enteral tube feeding and can be due to a variety of causes, including hyperosmolar formula. Choice B is incorrect as continuing the full-strength feeding, even at a lower rate, may not address the issue of diarrhea. Choice C is incorrect because it is important to follow the new prescription to manage the diarrhea effectively. Choice D is incorrect as withholding feeding without taking appropriate action may delay necessary intervention.
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