HESI RN
Biology Test
1. What is the difference between DNA and RNA?
- A. RNA has an extra Phosphate group
- B. DNA has one less oxygen than RNA
- C. RNA has one less oxygen than DNA
- D. DNA has an extra sugar molecule
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. DNA has one less oxygen atom in its sugar molecule (deoxyribose) compared to RNA, which has a ribose sugar. Choice A is incorrect because RNA does not have an extra phosphate group. Choice C is incorrect as RNA actually has one more oxygen atom than DNA. Choice D is incorrect as DNA and RNA have different sugar molecules, with DNA having deoxyribose and RNA having ribose.
2. A solid ball of 12-16 cells having undergone mitotic division after fertilization is:
- A. Zygote
- B. Blastomere
- C. Morula
- D. Blastocyst
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A morula is a stage in embryonic development where a solid ball of 12-16 cells is formed after several rounds of mitotic division following fertilization. The zygote is the initial cell formed by the fusion of sperm and egg. Blastomere refers to individual cells in a developing embryo. A blastocyst is a later stage where a fluid-filled cavity forms within the embryo. Therefore, the correct answer is 'Morula.'
3. What is an expected outcome when a client is receiving an IV administration of furosemide?
- A. Increased blood pressure.
- B. Increased urine output.
- C. Decreased pain.
- D. Decreased premature ventricular contractions.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased urine output. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that works by inhibiting the reabsorption of sodium and chloride in the ascending loop of Henle in the kidneys, leading to increased urine production. This diuretic effect helps to reduce fluid volume in the body, making it an expected outcome when a client is receiving furosemide. Choice A, increased blood pressure, is incorrect because furosemide typically causes a decrease in blood pressure due to its diuretic effect. Choice C, decreased pain, and choice D, decreased premature ventricular contractions, are unrelated to the pharmacological action of furosemide.
4. The nurse is caring for four clients with chronic kidney disease. Which client should the nurse assess first upon initial rounding?
- A. Woman with a blood pressure of 158/90 mm Hg
- B. Client with Kussmaul respirations
- C. Man with skin itching from head to toe
- D. Client with halitosis and stomatitis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Kussmaul respirations indicate a worsening of chronic kidney disease (CKD). The client is increasing the rate and depth of breathing to excrete carbon dioxide through the lungs, a compensatory mechanism for metabolic acidosis common in CKD. Hypertension, as in choice A, is a common finding in CKD due to volume overload and activation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system. Skin itching, as in choice C, is related to calcium-phosphate imbalances seen in CKD. Halitosis and stomatitis, as in choice D, are common in CKD due to uremia, leading to the formation of ammonia. However, Kussmaul respirations indicate a more urgent need for assessment as they suggest impending respiratory distress and metabolic derangement, requiring immediate attention.
5. Which of the following best defines management?
- A. A manager is someone who ensures that employees complete their work.
- B. A manager controls the work of employees.
- C. A manager organizes and controls a group of employees to get work done.
- D. A manager accomplishes tasks through planning, organizing, commanding, coordinating, and controlling work groups.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The best definition of management encompasses the comprehensive process of planning, organizing, commanding, coordinating, and controlling work groups to achieve organizational goals. Choice A is too limited, focusing only on ensuring work completion. Choice B is overly restrictive as management involves more than mere control. Choice C is more specific than the correct answer, which encompasses a broader range of managerial functions.