Nursing Elites

1. A client who was involved in a motor vehicle collision is admitted with a fractured left femur that is immobilized using a fracture traction splint in preparation for an open reduction internal fixation (ORIF). The nurse determines that the client's distal pulses are diminished in the left foot. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Verify pedal pulses using a Doppler pulse device
• B. Evaluate the application of the splint to the left leg
• C. Offer ice chips and clear oral liquids
• D. Monitor the left leg for pain, pallor, paresthesia, paralysis, pressure

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Evaluating the application of the splint is the priority as it ensures it is not too tight, which could impair circulation and exacerbate the diminished pulses. Verifying pedal pulses with a Doppler pulse device may be indicated but does not directly address the immediate concern of proper splint application. Offering ice chips and clear oral liquids would not address the issue of diminished distal pulses. Monitoring the left leg for pain, pallor, paresthesia, paralysis, and pressure is important but would not directly address the cause of the diminished pulses in this scenario.

2. After a transsphenoidal hypophysectomy, the nurse should assess the client for:

• A. Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak.
• B. Fluctuating blood glucose levels.
• C. Cushing's syndrome.
• D. Cardiac arrhythmias.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Following a transsphenoidal hypophysectomy, assessing the client for a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak is crucial due to the risk of this serious complication. A CSF leak can lead to infection and increased intracranial pressure, which must be promptly identified and managed to prevent further complications. Fluctuating blood glucose levels (Choice B) are not directly associated with a transsphenoidal hypophysectomy. Cushing's syndrome (Choice C) is a condition related to prolonged exposure to high levels of cortisol and is not a common immediate concern post-transsphenoidal hypophysectomy. Cardiac arrhythmias (Choice D) are not typically a direct complication of this surgical procedure, making it a less relevant concern compared to a CSF leak.

3. The nurse is caring for a patient who is ordered to receive PO trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) 160/800 QID to treat a urinary tract infection caused by E. coli. The nurse will contact the provider to clarify the correct

• A. dose.
• B. drug.
• C. frequency.
• D. route.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'frequency.' Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) is typically prescribed to be taken twice daily, not four times a day (QID). The dose, drug, and route are already specified in the order, so the nurse should contact the provider to clarify the frequency of administration to ensure optimal treatment for the urinary tract infection caused by E. coli. Choosing 'dose' is incorrect because the dose of 160/800 is already provided in the order. 'Drug' is incorrect because the medication Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) is explicitly stated in the prescription. 'Route' is incorrect as PO (by mouth) is also clearly indicated in the prescription.

4. The nurse is preparing to administer the first dose of hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDIURIL) 50 mg to a patient who has a blood pressure of 160/95 mm Hg. The nurse notes that the patient had a urine output of 200 mL in the past 12 hours. The nurse will perform which action?

• A. Administer the medication as ordered.
• B. Encourage the patient to drink more fluids.
• C. Hold the medication and request an order for serum BUN and creatinine.
• D. Request an order for serum electrolytes and administer the medication.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action is to hold the medication and request an order for serum BUN and creatinine. Thiazide diuretics, such as hydrochlorothiazide, are contraindicated in renal failure. In this case, the patient has oliguria, which is a reduced urine output, indicating potential renal insufficiency. Before administering the diuretic, it is crucial to evaluate the patient's renal function through serum BUN and creatinine levels. Encouraging the patient to drink more fluids (Choice B) may not address the underlying issue of renal function. Administering the medication as ordered (Choice A) without assessing renal function can be harmful. Requesting serum electrolytes and administering the medication (Choice D) overlooks the need for a specific evaluation of renal function in this scenario.

5. The nurse assesses a client with advanced cirrhosis of the liver for signs of hepatic encephalopathy. Which finding would the nurse consider an indication of progressive hepatic encephalopathy?

• A. An increase in abdominal girth.
• B. Hypertension and a bounding pulse.
• C. Decreased bowel sounds.
• D. Difficulty in handwriting.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Difficulty in handwriting is a common early sign of hepatic encephalopathy. Changes in handwriting can indicate progression or reversal of hepatic encephalopathy leading to coma. Choice (A) is a sign of ascites, not hepatic encephalopathy. Hypertension and a bounding pulse (Choice B) are not typically associated with hepatic encephalopathy. Decreased bowel sounds (Choice C) do not directly indicate an increase in serum ammonia level, which is the primary cause of hepatic encephalopathy.

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