HESI RN
HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam
1. A client who was involved in a motor vehicle collision is admitted with a fractured left femur that is immobilized using a fracture traction splint in preparation for an open reduction internal fixation (ORIF). The nurse determines that the client's distal pulses are diminished in the left foot. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Verify pedal pulses using a Doppler pulse device
- B. Evaluate the application of the splint to the left leg
- C. Offer ice chips and clear oral liquids
- D. Monitor the left leg for pain, pallor, paresthesia, paralysis, pressure
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Evaluating the application of the splint is the priority as it ensures it is not too tight, which could impair circulation and exacerbate the diminished pulses. Verifying pedal pulses with a Doppler pulse device may be indicated but does not directly address the immediate concern of proper splint application. Offering ice chips and clear oral liquids would not address the issue of diminished distal pulses. Monitoring the left leg for pain, pallor, paresthesia, paralysis, and pressure is important but would not directly address the cause of the diminished pulses in this scenario.
2. Which of the following is a characteristic symptom of multiple sclerosis (MS)?
- A. Muscle atrophy.
- B. Severe pain.
- C. Vision problems.
- D. Hearing loss.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Vision problems are a characteristic symptom of multiple sclerosis (MS) due to demyelination of the optic nerve. This can lead to issues such as optic neuritis, blurred vision, double vision, or even total vision loss. Muscle atrophy (Choice A) is not a primary symptom of MS but can occur as a secondary effect of decreased mobility. Severe pain (Choice B) is not a typical symptom of MS, though some individuals may experience pain related to muscle spasms or other factors. Hearing loss (Choice D) is not commonly associated with MS unless there is an unrelated concurrent condition affecting the auditory system.
3. The nurse is caring for a newly admitted patient who has severe gastroenteritis. The patient’s electrolytes reveal a serum sodium level of 140 mEq/L and a serum potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L. The nurse receives an order for intravenous 5% dextrose and normal saline with 20 mEq/L potassium chloride to infuse at 125 mL per hour. Which action is necessary prior to administering this fluid?
- A. Evaluate the patient’s urine output.
- B. Contact the provider to order arterial blood gases.
- C. Request an order for an initial potassium bolus.
- D. Suggest a diet low in sodium and potassium.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Prior to administering IV fluids containing potassium, it is crucial to evaluate the patient's urine output. If the urine output is less than 25 mL/hr or 600 mL/day, there is a risk of potassium accumulation. Patients with low urine output should not receive IV potassium to prevent potential complications. Contacting the provider for arterial blood gases is unnecessary in this scenario as it does not directly relate to the administration of IV fluids with potassium. Administering potassium as a bolus is not recommended due to potential adverse effects. While dietary considerations are important, suggesting a low-sodium and low-potassium diet is not the immediate action required before administering IV fluids with potassium chloride.
4. A client is hospitalized with heart failure (HF). Which intervention should the nurse implement to improve ventilation and reduce venous return?
- A. Perform passive range of motion exercises
- B. Place the client in high Fowler's position
- C. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula
- D. Increase the client's activity level
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In clients with heart failure, placing them in high Fowler's position is beneficial as it helps reduce venous return and improve ventilation. This position aids in decreasing the workload on the heart by promoting better lung expansion and oxygenation. Passive range of motion exercises (Choice A) are not directly related to improving ventilation or reducing venous return. Administering oxygen via nasal cannula (Choice C) may help with oxygenation but does not directly address reducing venous return. Increasing the client's activity level (Choice D) may worsen heart failure symptoms by increasing the workload on the heart.
5. When monitoring a client who is receiving tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA), the nurse should have resuscitation equipment available because reperfusion of the cardiac tissue can result in which of the following?
- A. Cardiac arrhythmias.
- B. Hypertension.
- C. Seizures.
- D. Hypothermia.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cardiac arrhythmias. Reperfusion of cardiac tissue following t-PA administration can lead to cardiac arrhythmias, necessitating resuscitation equipment. Hypertension (choice B) is a common side effect of t-PA but is not directly related to reperfusion. Seizures (choice C) and hypothermia (choice D) are not typically associated with reperfusion from t-PA administration.
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