Nursing Elites

1. A client who was involved in a motor vehicle collision is admitted with a fractured left femur that is immobilized using a fracture traction splint in preparation for an open reduction internal fixation (ORIF). The nurse determines that the client's distal pulses are diminished in the left foot. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Verify pedal pulses using a Doppler pulse device
• B. Evaluate the application of the splint to the left leg
• C. Offer ice chips and clear oral liquids
• D. Monitor the left leg for pain, pallor, paresthesia, paralysis, pressure

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Evaluating the application of the splint is the priority as it ensures it is not too tight, which could impair circulation and exacerbate the diminished pulses. Verifying pedal pulses with a Doppler pulse device may be indicated but does not directly address the immediate concern of proper splint application. Offering ice chips and clear oral liquids would not address the issue of diminished distal pulses. Monitoring the left leg for pain, pallor, paresthesia, paralysis, and pressure is important but would not directly address the cause of the diminished pulses in this scenario.

2. A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus has a blood glucose level of 620 mg/dL. After the nurse calls the physician to report the finding and monitors the client closely for:

• A. Metabolic acidosis
• B. Metabolic alkalosis
• C. Respiratory acidosis
• D. Respiratory alkalosis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the scenario described, a client with a blood glucose level of 620 mg/dL and type 1 diabetes mellitus is at risk of developing metabolic acidosis. In type 1 diabetes, the lack of sufficient circulating insulin leads to an increase in blood glucose levels. As the body cells utilize all available glucose, the breakdown of fats for energy results in the production of ketones, leading to metabolic acidosis. Metabolic alkalosis, respiratory acidosis, and respiratory alkalosis are not typically associated with uncontrolled type 1 diabetes. Metabolic alkalosis is more commonly linked to conditions such as vomiting or excessive diuretic use, while respiratory acidosis and respiratory alkalosis are related to respiratory system imbalances in carbon dioxide levels.

3. A client with kidney stones from secondary hyperoxaluria requires medication. Which medication should the nurse anticipate administering?

• A. Phenazopyridine (Pyridium)
• B. Propantheline (Pro-Banthine)
• C. Tolterodine (Detrol LA)
• D. Allopurinol (Zyloprim)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Allopurinol (Zyloprim). Allopurinol is used to treat kidney stones caused by secondary hyperoxaluria. This medication helps prevent the formation of certain types of kidney stones. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Phenazopyridine (Pyridium) is given to clients with urinary tract infections, not for kidney stones. Propantheline (Pro-Banthine) is an anticholinergic medication used for treating certain gastrointestinal conditions, not kidney stones. Tolterodine (Detrol LA) is also an anticholinergic with smooth muscle relaxant properties, primarily used to treat overactive bladder conditions, not kidney stones.

4. A client with chronic renal failure is receiving epoetin alfa (Epogen) to treat anemia. The nurse should assess the client for which of the following side effects?

• A. Hypertension.
• B. Hypotension.
• C. Infection.
• D. Edema.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypertension. Epoetin alfa (Epogen) is a medication used to treat anemia in clients with chronic renal failure. One common side effect of this medication is hypertension. Epoetin alfa stimulates red blood cell production, which can lead to an increase in blood pressure. Therefore, the nurse should closely monitor the client for signs and symptoms of hypertension while on this medication. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Hypotension is not typically associated with epoetin alfa administration. Infection is not a direct side effect of epoetin alfa. Edema is also not a common side effect of this medication.

5. The client has had a femoral-popliteal bypass surgery 6 hours ago. Which assessment provides the most accurate information about the client's postoperative status?

• A. Radial pulse.
• B. Femoral pulse.
• C. Apical pulse.
• D. Dorsalis pedis pulse.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Assessing the dorsalis pedis pulse is crucial after a femoral-popliteal bypass surgery to determine adequate circulation distal to the surgical site. A strong dorsalis pedis pulse indicates sufficient blood flow to the foot, which is essential for monitoring postoperative status. The radial pulse (A) is not the most relevant assessment as it does not provide direct information on circulation in the lower extremities. The femoral pulse (B) may not accurately reflect circulation distal to the surgical site. The apical pulse (C) is used primarily to assess the heartbeat and cardiac function, not circulation in the lower extremities.

Similar Questions