HESI RN
HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam
1. A client who was involved in a motor vehicle collision is admitted with a fractured left femur that is immobilized using a fracture traction splint in preparation for an open reduction internal fixation (ORIF). The nurse determines that the client's distal pulses are diminished in the left foot. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Verify pedal pulses using a Doppler pulse device
- B. Evaluate the application of the splint to the left leg
- C. Offer ice chips and clear oral liquids
- D. Monitor the left leg for pain, pallor, paresthesia, paralysis, pressure
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Evaluating the application of the splint is the priority as it ensures it is not too tight, which could impair circulation and exacerbate the diminished pulses. Verifying pedal pulses with a Doppler pulse device may be indicated but does not directly address the immediate concern of proper splint application. Offering ice chips and clear oral liquids would not address the issue of diminished distal pulses. Monitoring the left leg for pain, pallor, paresthesia, paralysis, and pressure is important but would not directly address the cause of the diminished pulses in this scenario.
2. How can a nurse best help a client undergoing a bone marrow aspiration and biopsy, along with two upset family members, manage anxiety during the procedure?
- A. Allow the client's family to stay for emotional support.
- B. Accompany the client silently.
- C. Encourage the client to take slow, deep breaths to promote relaxation.
- D. Provide the client an opportunity to verbalize emotions.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Encouraging the client to take slow, deep breaths is an effective way for the nurse to help the client manage anxiety during the bone marrow aspiration and biopsy procedure. Slow, deep breathing can promote relaxation and help reduce anxiety levels. Choice A, allowing the client's family to stay for emotional support, may provide comfort but does not address a direct intervention to help manage anxiety. Choice B, staying with the client silently, may not actively help the client address their anxiety. Choice D, allowing the client to express feelings, is important but may not directly address anxiety management during the procedure.
3. During CPR, when attempting to ventilate a client's lungs, the nurse notes that the chest is not moving. What action should the nurse take first?
- A. Use a laryngoscope to check for a foreign body lodged in the airway.
- B. Reposition the head to ensure that the airway is properly opened.
- C. Turn the client to the side and administer three back blows.
- D. Perform a finger sweep of the mouth to clear any obstructions.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most common reason for inadequate lung aeration during CPR is the incorrect positioning of the head, leading to airway obstruction. Therefore, the initial action should be to reposition the head to open the airway properly and attempt to ventilate again. Using a laryngoscope to check for foreign bodies in the airway (Choice A) is not the first step and could delay crucial interventions. Turning the client to the side and administering back blows (Choice C) is not indicated in this scenario as the focus is on ventilating the lungs. Performing a finger sweep of the mouth (Choice D) is not recommended as it may push obstructions further into the airway during CPR.
4. After checking the urinary drainage system for kinks in the tubing, the nurse determines that a client who has returned from the post-anesthesia care has a dark, concentrated urinary output of 54 ml for the last 2 hours. What priority nursing action should be implemented?
- A. Report the findings to the surgeon.
- B. Irrigate the indwelling urinary catheter.
- C. Apply manual pressure to the bladder.
- D. Increase the IV flow rate for 15 minutes.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In this situation, the nurse's priority action should be to report the findings to the surgeon. An adult should typically produce about 60 ml of urine per hour, so a dark, concentrated, and low urine output of 54 ml over 2 hours raises concerns. This change in urine output may indicate issues such as dehydration, renal problems, or inadequate fluid intake. Reporting this finding to the surgeon is crucial to ensure appropriate evaluation and intervention. Irrigating the catheter, applying manual pressure to the bladder, or increasing the IV flow rate are not appropriate actions based on the information provided and could potentially worsen the situation.
5. The nurse is caring for four clients with chronic kidney disease. Which client should the nurse assess first upon initial rounding?
- A. Woman with a blood pressure of 158/90 mm Hg
- B. Client with Kussmaul respirations
- C. Man with skin itching from head to toe
- D. Client with halitosis and stomatitis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Kussmaul respirations indicate a worsening of chronic kidney disease (CKD). The client is increasing the rate and depth of breathing to excrete carbon dioxide through the lungs, a compensatory mechanism for metabolic acidosis common in CKD. Hypertension, as in choice A, is a common finding in CKD due to volume overload and activation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system. Skin itching, as in choice C, is related to calcium-phosphate imbalances seen in CKD. Halitosis and stomatitis, as in choice D, are common in CKD due to uremia, leading to the formation of ammonia. However, Kussmaul respirations indicate a more urgent need for assessment as they suggest impending respiratory distress and metabolic derangement, requiring immediate attention.
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