Nursing Elites

1. What discharge instruction is most important for a client after a kidney transplant?

• A. Weigh weekly.
• B. Report symptoms of secondary Candidiasis.
• C. Use daily reminders to take immunosuppressants.
• D. Stop cigarette smoking.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: After a kidney transplant, it is crucial for the client to adhere to the prescribed immunosuppressive therapy to prevent organ rejection. The client must take medications like corticosteroids and azathioprine (Imuran) regularly for the rest of their life. Using daily reminders is essential to ensure compliance with the medication regimen, as missing doses can increase the risk of organ rejection. Weighing weekly, reporting symptoms of secondary Candidiasis, and stopping cigarette smoking are important aspects of post-transplant care but may not be as critical as ensuring proper intake of immunosuppressants to prevent rejection.

2. The nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving an intravenous antibiotic. The nurse notes that the provider has ordered serum drug peak and trough levels. The nurse understands that these tests are necessary for which type of drugs?

• A. Drugs with a broad spectrum
• B. Drugs with a narrow spectrum
• C. Drugs with a broad therapeutic index
• D. Drugs with a narrow therapeutic index

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Medications with a narrow therapeutic index have a limited range between the therapeutic dose and a toxic dose. It is important to monitor these medications closely by evaluating regular serum peak and trough levels. Drugs with a narrow spectrum (Choice B) are antibiotics that target only a limited group of bacteria, not related to the need for peak and trough monitoring. Drugs with a broad spectrum (Choice A) cover a wide range of bacteria, but this characteristic does not determine the need for peak and trough monitoring. Drugs with a broad therapeutic index (Choice C) have a wide safety margin between therapeutic and toxic doses, so they typically do not require peak and trough level monitoring.

3. A client with acute glomerulonephritis (GN) is being evaluated by a nurse. Which manifestation should the nurse recognize as a positive response to the prescribed treatment?

• A. The client has lost 11 pounds in the past 10 days.
• B. The client’s urine specific gravity is 1.048.
• C. No blood is observed in the client’s urine.
• D. The client’s blood pressure is 152/88 mm Hg.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A weight loss of 11 pounds in the past 10 days indicates fluid loss, a positive response to treatment for acute glomerulonephritis. It signifies that the glomeruli are functioning adequately to filter excess fluid. A urine specific gravity of 1.048 is high, indicating concentrated urine, which is not a positive response in this context. Blood in the urine is not a typical finding in glomerulonephritis, so its absence is expected and does not indicate a positive response to treatment. A blood pressure of 152/88 mm Hg is elevated and may suggest kidney damage or fluid overload, which are not positive responses to treatment.

4. Alteplase recombinant, or tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA), a thrombolytic enzyme, is administered during the first 6 hours after onset of myocardial infarction (MI) to:

• A. Control chest pain.
• B. Reduce coronary artery vasospasm.
• C. Control the arrhythmias associated with MI.
• D. Revascularize the blocked coronary artery.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Alteplase recombinant, or t-PA, is a thrombolytic enzyme used to dissolve clots and revascularize the blocked coronary artery in patients experiencing a myocardial infarction (MI). Administering t-PA within the first 6 hours of MI onset is crucial to restore blood flow to the affected area and minimize cardiac tissue damage. Therefore, the correct answer is to revascularize the blocked coronary artery. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because while controlling chest pain, reducing coronary artery vasospasm, and managing arrhythmias are important goals in managing MI, the primary purpose of administering t-PA within the first 6 hours is to restore blood flow by dissolving clots and revascularizing the blocked coronary artery.

5. The nurse assumes care for a patient who is currently receiving a dose of intravenous vancomycin (Vancocin) infusing at 20 mg/min. The nurse notes red blotches on the patient’s face, neck, and chest and assesses a blood pressure of 80/55 mm Hg. Which action will the nurse take?

• A. Request an order for IV epinephrine to treat anaphylactic shock.
• B. Slow the infusion to 10 mg/min and observe the patient closely.
• C. Stop the infusion and obtain an order for a BUN and serum creatinine.
• D. Suspect Stevens-Johnson syndrome and notify the provider immediately.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When vancomycin is infused too rapidly, “red man” syndrome may occur; the rate should be 10 mg/min to prevent this. This is a toxic reaction, not an allergic one, so epinephrine is not indicated. Stevens-Johnson syndrome is characterized by a rash and fever. Red man syndrome is not related to renal function.

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