HESI RN
HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam Quizlet
1. A client with early breast cancer receives the results of a breast biopsy and asks the nurse to explain the meaning of staging and the type of receptors found on the cancer cells. Which explanation should the nurse provide?
- A. Lymph node involvement is not significant.
- B. Small tumors are aggressive and indicate poor prognosis.
- C. The tumor's estrogen receptor guides treatment options.
- D. Stage I indicates metastasis.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Treatment decisions and prediction of prognosis are related to the tumor's receptor status, such as estrogen and progesterone receptor status which commonly are well-differentiated, have a lower chance of recurrence, and are receptive to hormonal therapy. Tumor staging designates tumor size and spread of breast cancer cells into axillary lymph nodes, which is one of the most important prognostic factors in early-stage breast cancer.
2. A middle-aged female client with diabetes mellitus is being treated for the third episode of acute pyelonephritis in the past year. The client asks, 'What can I do to help prevent these infections?' How should the nurse respond?
- A. Test your urine daily for the presence of ketone bodies and proteins.
- B. Use tampons rather than sanitary napkins during your menstrual period.
- C. Drink more water and empty your bladder more frequently during the day.
- D. Keep your hemoglobin A1c under 9% by controlling your blood sugar levels.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Clients with long-standing diabetes mellitus are at risk for pyelonephritis due to various reasons. Elevated blood glucose levels in diabetes can lead to glucose spilling into the urine, altering the pH and creating a conducive environment for bacterial growth. Neuropathy associated with diabetes can reduce bladder tone and diminish the sensation of bladder fullness, resulting in less frequent voiding and increased risk of stasis and bacterial overgrowth. Increasing fluid intake, particularly water, and voiding regularly can help prevent stasis and microbial overgrowth. Testing urine for ketones and proteins or using tampons instead of sanitary napkins are not effective strategies for preventing pyelonephritis. Keeping the hemoglobin A1c levels below 9% is crucial for managing diabetes, but it alone does not directly prevent pyelonephritis.
3. A nurse is assessing the status of a client with diabetes mellitus. The nurse concludes that the client is exhibiting adequate diabetic control if the serum level of glycosylated hemoglobin A1C (HbA1C) is less than:
- A. 7%
- B. 9%
- C. 10%
- D. 15%
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 7%. Glycosylated hemoglobin A1C (HbA1C) level of 7.0% or less is considered indicative of adequate diabetic control. This level reflects good long-term blood sugar management. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because an HbA1C level above 7% indicates poor diabetic control and an increased risk of complications associated with diabetes, such as cardiovascular disease, neuropathy, and retinopathy.
4. Assessment of the diabetic client for common complications should include examination of the:
- A. Abdomen.
- B. Lymph glands.
- C. Pharynx.
- D. Eyes.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Eyes. Diabetic clients are at high risk of developing complications such as diabetic retinopathy, making regular eye examinations crucial. Assessing the eyes helps in early detection and management of diabetic eye diseases. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because while they may be relevant in certain assessments, they are not commonly associated with complications specific to diabetes. Examination of the abdomen, lymph glands, and pharynx are not typically part of routine assessments for common complications in diabetic clients.
5. A client has a long history of hypertension. Which category of medication would the nurse expect to be ordered to avoid chronic kidney disease (CKD)?
- A. Antibiotic
- B. Histamine blocker
- C. Bronchodilator
- D. Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor. ACE inhibitors inhibit the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, a potent vasoconstrictor. By blocking this conversion, ACE inhibitors promote vasodilation and improve perfusion to the kidneys. Additionally, ACE inhibitors block the breakdown of bradykinin and prostaglandin, further contributing to vasodilation. They also lead to increased renin and decreased aldosterone levels. These effects help in reducing blood pressure and protecting the kidneys in clients with hypertension. Antibiotics are used to fight infections, histamine blockers reduce inflammation, and bronchodilators widen the bronchi, none of which address the underlying processes involved in slowing the progression of chronic kidney disease (CKD) in hypertensive clients.
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