Nursing Elites

1. A client with early breast cancer receives the results of a breast biopsy and asks the nurse to explain the meaning of staging and the type of receptors found on the cancer cells. Which explanation should the nurse provide?

• A. Lymph node involvement is not significant.
• B. Small tumors are aggressive and indicate poor prognosis.
• C. The tumor's estrogen receptor guides treatment options.
• D. Stage I indicates metastasis.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Treatment decisions and prediction of prognosis are related to the tumor's receptor status, such as estrogen and progesterone receptor status which commonly are well-differentiated, have a lower chance of recurrence, and are receptive to hormonal therapy. Tumor staging designates tumor size and spread of breast cancer cells into axillary lymph nodes, which is one of the most important prognostic factors in early-stage breast cancer.

2. A client who has just undergone a skin biopsy is listening to discharge instructions from the nurse. The nurse determines that the client has misunderstood the directions if the client indicates that as part of aftercare he plans to:

• A. Use the antibiotic ointment as prescribed
• B. Return in 7 days to have the sutures removed
• C. Apply cool compresses to the site twice a day for 20 minutes
• D. Call the physician if excessive drainage from the wound occurs

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Applying cool compresses to the site twice a day for 20 minutes is not a recommended aftercare practice for a skin biopsy. After a skin biopsy, it is important to keep the dressing dry and in place for a minimum of 8 hours. Choice A is correct as using the antibiotic ointment as prescribed is a common post-biopsy instruction to prevent infection. Choice B is also correct as returning in 7 days to have the sutures removed is part of the typical follow-up care after a skin biopsy. Choice D is correct as it is important to call the physician if excessive drainage from the wound occurs to prevent complications.

3. Why is the combination drug trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) necessary?

• A. To broaden the antibacterial spectrum.
• B. To decrease bacterial resistance.
• C. To improve the taste.
• D. To minimize toxic effects.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: To decrease bacterial resistance. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) is a combination drug used to prevent bacterial resistance to sulfonamides. It works by targeting different steps in the bacterial metabolic pathway, making it harder for bacteria to develop resistance. Choice A is incorrect because the combination does not broaden the antibacterial spectrum; instead, it enhances effectiveness against specific bacteria. Choice C is incorrect as taste improvement is not the primary reason for combining these drugs. Choice D is incorrect because while combination therapy can sometimes help minimize toxic effects, the primary purpose in this case is to address bacterial resistance.

4. The nurse is administering intravenous fluids to a dehydrated patient. On the second day of care, the patient's weight has increased by 2.25 pounds. The nurse would expect that the patient's fluid intake has

• A. equaled urine output.
• B. exceeded urine output by 1 L.
• C. exceeded urine output by 2.5 L.
• D. exceeded urine output by 3 L.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A weight gain of 1 kg, or approximately 2.2 to 2.5 lb, is generally equivalent to 1 liter (L) of fluid retained by the body. In this case, the patient's weight gain of 2.25 pounds suggests an excess fluid retention of approximately 1 liter, indicating that the patient's fluid intake has exceeded urine output by 1 liter. Choices C and D are incorrect as they overestimate the fluid excess based on the patient's weight gain. Choice A is incorrect as it implies an exact balance between fluid intake and urine output, which is not reflected in the given weight increase.

5. During a routine clinic visit, a nurse is assessing a 48-year-old client with a history of smoking. The client, who exercises regularly, reports calf pain during exercise that disappears at rest. Which of the following findings requires further evaluation?

• A. Heart rate of 57 bpm.
• B. SpO2 of 94% on room air.
• C. Blood pressure of 134/82.
• D. Ankle-brachial index of 0.65.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An Ankle-Brachial Index of 0.65 suggests moderate arterial vascular disease in a client experiencing intermittent claudication, indicating compromised blood flow to the lower extremities during exercise. This finding requires further evaluation to assess the severity of arterial insufficiency and determine appropriate interventions. Choice A (Heart rate of 57 bpm) is within the normal range for an adult at rest and indicates good cardiovascular fitness. Choice B (SpO2 of 94% on room air) is slightly lower than the normal range but is generally acceptable in a healthy individual. Choice C (Blood pressure of 134/82) falls within the normal range and does not raise immediate concerns in this context.

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