Nursing Elites

1. A client with early breast cancer receives the results of a breast biopsy and asks the nurse to explain the meaning of staging and the type of receptors found on the cancer cells. Which explanation should the nurse provide?

• A. Lymph node involvement is not significant.
• B. Small tumors are aggressive and indicate poor prognosis.
• C. The tumor's estrogen receptor guides treatment options.
• D. Stage I indicates metastasis.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Treatment decisions and prediction of prognosis are related to the tumor's receptor status, such as estrogen and progesterone receptor status which commonly are well-differentiated, have a lower chance of recurrence, and are receptive to hormonal therapy. Tumor staging designates tumor size and spread of breast cancer cells into axillary lymph nodes, which is one of the most important prognostic factors in early-stage breast cancer.

2. The patient will begin taking doxycycline to treat an infection. When should the nurse plan to give this medication?

• A. 1 hour before or 2 hours after a meal.
• B. with an antacid to minimize GI irritation.
• C. with food to improve absorption.
• D. with small sips of water.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Doxycycline is a lipid-soluble tetracycline that is better absorbed when taken with milk products and food. Taking doxycycline with food helps improve its absorption. It should not be taken on an empty stomach, as this can decrease its effectiveness. Antacids can interfere with the absorption of tetracyclines, so they should not be taken together. While it is important to stay hydrated when taking medications, small sips of water are not specifically recommended for doxycycline administration.

3. The client is planning care for a client who is receiving hemodialysis. Which of the following interventions should be included in the plan of care?

• A. Administer anticoagulants to prevent clot formation.
• B. Monitor the client for signs of infection.
• C. Provide the client with a high-protein diet.
• D. Encourage the client to drink at least 2 liters of fluid daily.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Monitoring for signs of infection is crucial in clients receiving hemodialysis because they are at an increased risk of infection due to the invasive nature of the procedure. Administering anticoagulants is not typically a part of the routine care for clients undergoing hemodialysis unless specifically prescribed. While a high-protein diet may be beneficial for some clients, it is not a specific intervention related to hemodialysis. Encouraging fluid intake must be individualized based on the client's fluid status and should not be a generalized recommendation for all clients receiving hemodialysis.

4. A 32-year-old female client complains of severe abdominal pain each month before her menstrual period, painful intercourse, and painful defecation. Which additional history should the nurse obtain that is consistent with the client's complaints?

• A. Frequent urinary tract infections.
• B. Inability to get pregnant.
• C. Premenstrual syndrome.
• D. Chronic use of laxatives.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Inability to get pregnant.' The symptoms described in the client's complaints, which include severe abdominal pain before menstruation, painful intercourse, and painful defecation, are indicative of endometriosis. Endometriosis is a condition characterized by the abnormal presence of endometrial tissue outside the uterus, commonly leading to infertility. While choices A, C, and D may be associated with other conditions, they are not directly related to the symptoms described by the client, making them incorrect choices. Frequent urinary tract infections may suggest a different issue, premenstrual syndrome does not typically present with severe abdominal pain, and chronic use of laxatives is not a typical symptom of endometriosis.

5. Prior to administering tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA), the nurse should assess the client for which of the following contraindications to administering the drug?

• A. Age over 60 years.
• B. History of cerebral hemorrhage.
• C. History of heart failure.
• D. Cigarette smoking.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: History of cerebral hemorrhage. A history of cerebral hemorrhage is a contraindication to t-PA administration because of the increased risk of bleeding. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Age over 60 years is not a contraindication for t-PA administration. While older age may pose some risks, it is not an absolute contraindication. History of heart failure is not a direct contraindication to t-PA administration. Cigarette smoking, while a risk factor for cardiovascular disease, is not a specific contraindication for t-PA administration.

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