Nursing Elites

1. During CPR, when attempting to ventilate a client's lungs, the nurse notes that the chest is not moving. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Use a laryngoscope to check for a foreign body lodged in the airway.
• B. Reposition the head to ensure that the airway is properly opened.
• C. Turn the client to the side and administer three back blows.
• D. Perform a finger sweep of the mouth to clear any obstructions.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most common reason for inadequate lung aeration during CPR is the incorrect positioning of the head, leading to airway obstruction. Therefore, the initial action should be to reposition the head to open the airway properly and attempt to ventilate again. Using a laryngoscope to check for foreign bodies in the airway (Choice A) is not the first step and could delay crucial interventions. Turning the client to the side and administering back blows (Choice C) is not indicated in this scenario as the focus is on ventilating the lungs. Performing a finger sweep of the mouth (Choice D) is not recommended as it may push obstructions further into the airway during CPR.

2. After confirming that liquids are allowed, which assessment action should the nurse consider a priority for a client who is fully awake after a gastroscopy?

• A. Listen to bilateral lung and bowel sounds.
• B. Obtain the client's pulse and blood pressure.
• C. Assist the client to the bathroom to void.
• D. Check the client's gag and swallow reflexes.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: After a gastroscopy, it is crucial for the nurse to prioritize checking the client's gag and swallow reflexes before allowing them to drink anything. This is because the effects of local anesthesia need to dissipate, and the airway's protective reflexes, including the gag and swallow reflexes, must have returned to prevent aspiration. Listening to lung and bowel sounds (Choice A) may be important but does not take precedence over ensuring the client's safety post-gastroscopy. Obtaining the client's pulse and blood pressure (Choice B) is also important but not the priority in this scenario. Assisting the client to the bathroom to void (Choice C) is a routine nursing action and is not directly related to the immediate safety concern of checking the client's gag and swallow reflexes post-gastroscopy.

3. A healthcare professional is reviewing the results of renal function testing in a client with renal calculi. Which finding indicates to the healthcare professional that the client’s blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level is within the normal range?

• A. 2 mg/dL
• B. 18 mg/dL
• C. 25 mg/dL
• D. 35 mg/dL

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The normal BUN ranges from 5 to 20 mg/dL. A BUN level of 18 mg/dL falls within this normal range. Values of 25 and 35 mg/dL are elevated, suggesting potential renal insufficiency. Choice A (2 mg/dL) is abnormally low and not indicative of a normal BUN level.

4. A client with partial thickness burns to the lower extremities is scheduled for whirlpool therapy to debride the burned area. Which intervention should the nurse implement before transporting the client to the physical therapy department?

• A. Obtain supplies to re-dress the burn area.
• B. Verify the client's signed consent form.
• C. Give a prescribed narcotic analgesic agent.
• D. Perform active range-of-motion exercises.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Before transporting the client for whirlpool therapy to debride the burned area, the nurse should give a prescribed narcotic analgesic agent. This intervention is essential to manage pain effectively during the debridement process. Obtaining supplies to re-dress the burn area (Choice A) is important but not as immediate as providing pain relief. Verifying the client's signed consent form (Choice B) is necessary for procedures but does not address the client's immediate pain needs. Performing active range-of-motion exercises (Choice D) is not indicated before whirlpool therapy for debridement of burns and may cause further discomfort to the client.

5. The client with peripheral vascular disease (PVD) and a history of heart failure may have a low tolerance for exercise due to:

• A. Decreased blood flow.
• B. Increased blood flow.
• C. Decreased pain.
• D. Increased blood viscosity.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decreased blood flow. In clients with peripheral vascular disease (PVD) and a history of heart failure, decreased blood flow due to heart failure can result in reduced oxygen delivery to tissues. This reduced oxygen supply can lead to low exercise tolerance. Increased blood flow (Choice B) is not typically associated with reduced exercise tolerance in these clients. Decreased pain (Choice C) and increased blood viscosity (Choice D) are not the primary factors contributing to low exercise tolerance in this scenario.

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