Nursing Elites

1. During CPR, when attempting to ventilate a client's lungs, the nurse notes that the chest is not moving. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Use a laryngoscope to check for a foreign body lodged in the airway.
• B. Reposition the head to ensure that the airway is properly opened.
• C. Turn the client to the side and administer three back blows.
• D. Perform a finger sweep of the mouth to clear any obstructions.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most common reason for inadequate lung aeration during CPR is the incorrect positioning of the head, leading to airway obstruction. Therefore, the initial action should be to reposition the head to open the airway properly and attempt to ventilate again. Using a laryngoscope to check for foreign bodies in the airway (Choice A) is not the first step and could delay crucial interventions. Turning the client to the side and administering back blows (Choice C) is not indicated in this scenario as the focus is on ventilating the lungs. Performing a finger sweep of the mouth (Choice D) is not recommended as it may push obstructions further into the airway during CPR.

2. A nurse reviews laboratory results for a client with glomerulonephritis. The client’s glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is 40 mL/min as measured by a 24-hour creatinine clearance. How should the nurse interpret this finding? (Select all that apply.)

• A. Excessive GFR
• B. Reduced GFR
• C. Fluid retention and risks for hypertension
• D. Pulmonary edema

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A GFR of 40 mL/min indicates a reduced glomerular filtration rate. In a healthy adult, the normal GFR ranges between 100 and 120 mL/min. A GFR of 40 mL/min signifies a significant reduction, leading to fluid retention and risks for hypertension and pulmonary edema due to excess vascular fluid. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A is incorrect as a GFR of 40 mL/min is not excessive but rather reduced. Choices C and D do not directly address the interpretation of GFR but instead describe potential consequences of a reduced GFR.

3. Which of the following assessments is the most important for a patient receiving IV potassium?

• A. Respiratory rate
• B. Heart rate
• C. Blood pressure
• D. Oxygen saturation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most important assessment for a patient receiving IV potassium is monitoring blood pressure. IV potassium can cause significant changes in cardiac function, leading to adverse effects such as arrhythmias and cardiac arrest. While respiratory rate, heart rate, and oxygen saturation are important parameters to monitor in clinical practice, blood pressure takes precedence in patients receiving IV potassium due to its direct impact on cardiovascular function. Changes in blood pressure can be an early indicator of potassium-induced cardiac complications, making it crucial to monitor closely during administration.

4. An overweight client taking warfarin (Coumadin) has dry skin due to decreased arterial blood flow. What should the nurse instruct the client to do? Select all that apply.

• A. Apply lanolin or petroleum jelly to intact skin.
• B. Follow a reduced-calorie, reduced-fat diet.
• C. Inspect the involved areas daily for new ulcerations.
• D. Instruct the client to limit activities of daily living (ADLs).

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To address dry skin and prevent chronic ulcers and infections in an overweight client on warfarin with decreased arterial blood flow, the nurse should instruct the client to apply lanolin or petroleum jelly to intact skin. This helps maintain skin integrity and moisture. Following a reduced-calorie, reduced-fat diet (Choice B) may be beneficial for weight management but is not directly related to skin care. Inspecting involved areas daily for new ulcerations (Choice C) is important for skin assessment and early intervention but does not specifically address dry skin. Instructing the client to limit activities of daily living (ADLs) (Choice D) is not necessary for addressing dry skin; in fact, promoting mobility and circulation through appropriate activities is crucial.

5. An adult client is admitted with flank pain and is diagnosed with acute pyelonephritis. What is the priority nursing action?

• A. Monitor hemoglobin and hematocrit
• B. Encourage turning and deep breathing
• C. Administer IV antibiotics as prescribed
• D. Auscultate for presence of bowel sounds

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The priority nursing action for a client diagnosed with acute pyelonephritis is to administer IV antibiotics as prescribed. Acute pyelonephritis is a serious kidney infection that requires prompt antibiotic therapy to prevent systemic complications and worsening of the infection. While monitoring hemoglobin and hematocrit (Choice A) is important, it is not the priority in the acute phase of infection. Encouraging turning and deep breathing (Choice B) and auscultating for bowel sounds (Choice D) are relevant aspects of care but do not take precedence over initiating antibiotic treatment to address the infection promptly.

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