Nursing Elites

1. During CPR, when attempting to ventilate a client's lungs, the nurse notes that the chest is not moving. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Use a laryngoscope to check for a foreign body lodged in the airway.
• B. Reposition the head to ensure that the airway is properly opened.
• C. Turn the client to the side and administer three back blows.
• D. Perform a finger sweep of the mouth to clear any obstructions.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most common reason for inadequate lung aeration during CPR is the incorrect positioning of the head, leading to airway obstruction. Therefore, the initial action should be to reposition the head to open the airway properly and attempt to ventilate again. Using a laryngoscope to check for foreign bodies in the airway (Choice A) is not the first step and could delay crucial interventions. Turning the client to the side and administering back blows (Choice C) is not indicated in this scenario as the focus is on ventilating the lungs. Performing a finger sweep of the mouth (Choice D) is not recommended as it may push obstructions further into the airway during CPR.

2. A patient with a diagnosis of Cushing's syndrome is likely to exhibit which of the following symptoms?

• A. Hyperpigmentation.
• B. Moon face.
• C. Hypotension.
• D. Hypertension.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Moon face. Cushing's syndrome is characterized by excess cortisol levels, leading to the distinctive round and full face known as moon face. Hyperpigmentation (choice A) may occur due to increased ACTH levels, but it is not a hallmark symptom like moon face. Hypotension (choice C) is less common in Cushing's syndrome as cortisol typically leads to hypertension (choice D) due to its effects on blood pressure regulation.

3. The nurse is caring for a newly admitted patient who has severe gastroenteritis. The patient’s electrolytes reveal a serum sodium level of 140 mEq/L and a serum potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L. The nurse receives an order for intravenous 5% dextrose and normal saline with 20 mEq/L potassium chloride to infuse at 125 mL per hour. Which action is necessary prior to administering this fluid?

• A. Evaluate the patient’s urine output.
• B. Contact the provider to order arterial blood gases.
• C. Request an order for an initial potassium bolus.
• D. Suggest a diet low in sodium and potassium.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Prior to administering IV fluids containing potassium, it is crucial to evaluate the patient's urine output. If the urine output is less than 25 mL/hr or 600 mL/day, there is a risk of potassium accumulation. Patients with low urine output should not receive IV potassium to prevent potential complications. Contacting the provider for arterial blood gases is unnecessary in this scenario as it does not directly relate to the administration of IV fluids with potassium. Administering potassium as a bolus is not recommended due to potential adverse effects. While dietary considerations are important, suggesting a low-sodium and low-potassium diet is not the immediate action required before administering IV fluids with potassium chloride.

4. Which of the following is the best position for a patient experiencing dyspnea?

• A. Supine position.
• B. Fowler's position.
• C. Trendelenburg position.
• D. Lateral recumbent position.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Fowler's position is the best position for a patient experiencing dyspnea. This position involves sitting the patient upright with the head of the bed elevated between 45-60 degrees. Fowler's position helps improve breathing in patients with dyspnea by promoting lung expansion, aiding in better oxygenation, and reducing the work of breathing. The supine position (Choice A) may worsen dyspnea by limiting lung expansion. The Trendelenburg position (Choice C) with the feet elevated and the head down is not recommended for dyspnea as it can increase pressure on the chest and compromise breathing. The lateral recumbent position (Choice D) is not ideal for dyspnea as it does not provide optimal lung expansion and may not alleviate breathing difficulty.

5. A client with Diabetes Insipidus (DI) is being cared for by a nurse. Which data warrants the most immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. Serum sodium of 185 mEq/L (185 mmol/L)
• B. Dry skin with poor skin turgor
• C. Apical rate of 110 beats per minute
• D. Polyuria and excessive thirst

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A serum sodium level of 185 mEq/L (185 mmol/L) is dangerously high and indicates severe dehydration, requiring immediate intervention to prevent neurological damage. The other options are not as critical as high serum sodium levels, which can lead to serious complications such as seizures, coma, and death if not promptly addressed. Dry skin with poor skin turgor and polyuria with excessive thirst are common findings in clients with Diabetes Insipidus and should be managed but do not pose an immediate threat to the client's life. An apical heart rate of 110 beats per minute may indicate tachycardia, which could be related to dehydration but is not as urgent as addressing the severe hypernatremia.

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